Paper 1 (General Paper)

Paper 1 – General Paper Notes

Unit 1 – Teaching Aptitude Tutorial/Notes

Unit 2 – Research Aptitude Tutorial/Notes

Unit 3 – Comprehension Tutorial/Notes

Unit 4 – Communication Tutorial/Notes

Unit 5 – Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude Tutorial/Notes

Unit 6 – Logical Reasoning Tutorial/Notes

Unit 6 – Indian Logic Tutorial/Notes

Unit 7 – Data Interpretation Tutorial/Notes

Unit 8 – Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Tutorial/Notes

Unit 9 – People, Development and Environment Tutorial/Notes

Unit 10 – Higher Education System Tutorial/Notes

Paper 1 Exam Pattern

As per recent NTA information bulletin, UGC NET has two papers in one sitting, with no break, and the test is in CBT mode. Paper 1 has 50 MCQs (100 marks) and Paper 2 has 100 MCQs (200 marks). Total time is 180 minutes. Also, there is no negative marking for wrong answers.

PaperQuestionsMarksTime
Paper 150100Included in total 180 minsTeaching & Research Aptitude
Paper 2100200Included in total 180 minsSubject (your chosen subject)
Total150300180 minsNo break, CBT, all compulsory

Various types of Questions asked in the UGC NET Paper 1 Exam, below are the types of questions.

Question Types:

1) Direct Single-Question

Q1. In a class, the main aim of formative evaluation is to:
A) certify achievement at the end
B) improve learning during instruction
C) rank students publicly
D) decide final promotion only
Answer: B

2) Fill in the Blank

Q2. The process of converting data into meaningful information is called ________.
A) encryption
B) processing
C) transmission
D) storage
Answer: B

3) Negative Question (NOT / EXCEPT)

Q3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of good communication?
A) clarity
B) feedback
C) ambiguity
D) appropriate channel
Answer: C

4) Statement-Based (I, II, III)

Q4. Which of the following are characteristics of research?
I. Systematic process
II. Empirical evidence
III. Personal bias and guesswork
A) Only I
B) Only I and II
C) Only II and III
D) I, II and III
Answer: B

5) Assertion–Reason (A–R)

Q5.
Assertion (A): A good hypothesis should be testable.
Reason (R): A hypothesis should predict a relationship between variables.
A) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is true, R is false
D) A is false, R is true
Answer: A

6) Match the Following

Q6. Match List I with List II:

List I: (a) Mean; (b) Median; (c) Mode; (d) Range;
List II: (1) Most frequent value; (2) Maximum βˆ’ Minimum; (3) Average; (4) Middle value;

A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
D) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
Answer: A

7) Sequence / Arrangement

Q7. Arrange the steps of research in the correct order:

  1. Data collection 2) Problem identification 3) Report writing 4) Data analysis
    A) 2 β†’ 1 β†’ 4 β†’ 3
    B) 2 β†’ 4 β†’ 1 β†’ 3
    C) 1 β†’ 2 β†’ 4 β†’ 3
    D) 4 β†’ 1 β†’ 2 β†’ 3
    Answer: A

8) Odd One Out

Q8. Identify the odd one out:
A) Questionnaire
B) Interview
C) Observation
D) Hypothesis
Answer: D

9) Case / Situation-Based

Q9. A teacher finds that many students are silent and afraid to answer. The best immediate step is to:
A) punish wrong answers
B) encourage attempts and allow safe mistakes
C) stop asking questions
D) call parents daily
Answer: B

10) Passage-Based (Comprehension)

Passage: β€œEffective teaching is not only giving information. It includes checking understanding, giving feedback, and motivating learners.”

Q10. The passage mainly emphasizes that teaching should be:
A) only lecture-based
B) only exam-oriented
C) interactive and feedback-based
D) only textbook reading
Answer: C

11) Data-Based (DI Set: Table/Graph)

YearNumber of students
202240
202350
202460

Q11. Percentage increase from 2022 to 2024 is:
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Answer: C

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