UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Stratification denotes the creation of hierarchical layers in which some institutions enjoy much greater prestige and resources than others. The stem notes that rankings concentrate prestige and funding at the top, which is a classic example of stratification, so “stratification” is the correct completion.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because egalitarianism implies greater equality, the opposite of the unequal concentration described.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it captures the structured inequality that critics say rankings intensify by repeatedly rewarding already advantaged institutions.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since randomness would mean there is no stable pattern, whereas rankings explicitly order institutions in a hierarchy.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as uniformity suggests that institutions become similar, not that a few accumulate disproportionate advantage.

Fear and anxiety are internal emotional states that block attention and participation, so they are psychological barriers to communication.

Option A:
Semantic barriers are meaning/language issues, not fear or anxiety.

Option B:
Organisational barriers are structural/institutional channel issues, not emotional states.

Option C:
Physical barriers are external (noise, seating, equipment), not internal fear/anxiety.

Option D:
Psychological barriers arise from emotions like anxiety, fear and low self-esteem, matching the stem.

In the Mode 1–Mode 2 framework, Mode 1 denotes conventional disciplinary research carried out largely in universities and driven by academic curiosity. The stem clearly describes this traditional pattern, so the correct number to complete the term is “1.”

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because “Mode 0” is not part of this established classification in the literature.

Option B:
Option B is correct as Mode 1 is the recognised label for university-based, discipline-bound knowledge production governed by academic norms.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since Mode 2 refers to transdisciplinary, application-oriented research conducted in heterogeneous contexts, not to the traditional university model in the stem.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because “4” likewise has no recognised meaning in this particular framework of knowledge modes.

Statement D is wrong because probability sampling typically requires a sampling frame or some representation of the population to ensure known selection probabilities. Statements A, B, C and E are correct: the sampling frame is the list from which samples are drawn, its quality affects representativeness, outdated frames cause coverage errors and an ideal frame covers the entire target population. Therefore, the only wrong statement is D.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it also labels A, which correctly defines the sampling frame, as wrong along with D. This misrepresents a basic concept in sampling.

Option B:
Option B is wrong because it groups C with D as wrong, even though C accurately states that outdated frames cause coverage errors. Coverage error is a standard threat to representativeness.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it isolates D as the sole statement inconsistent with probability sampling principles and implicitly accepts A, B, C and E as true.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats B and E as wrong along with D, despite both B and E properly describing the relationship between frame quality and sample representativeness.

Self-directed learning is characterised by learners taking responsibility for planning, implementing and evaluating their own learning activities. They identify goals, choose resources and assess their progress, often with guidance rather than control from the teacher. The stem directly describes such behaviours, so the correct term is self-directed learning.

Option A:
Rote learning is based on memorisation without deep understanding and usually follows teacher-prescribed tasks, not learner-selected goals and resources.

Option B:
Classroom-based learning simply indicates that learning occurs in a classroom; it does not specify who directs the learning process or how autonomy is fostered.

Option C:
Self-directed learning involves metacognitive skills such as planning, monitoring and evaluating one’s own work. Because the stem mentions goal setting, resource selection and progress monitoring by students, it clearly points to self-directed learning.

Option D:
Teacher-dependent learning occurs when students rely heavily on the teacher for decisions and do not exercise autonomy. This is the opposite of what is described in the stem.

A carbon footprint quantifies the total greenhouse gas emissions associated with an activity or entity. It expresses different greenhouse gases in a common unit of carbon dioxide equivalent. This helps compare and manage contributions to climate change. Therefore the description in the question clearly corresponds to a carbon footprint.

Option A:
Carbon footprint is specifically used to track how much climate forcing gases are emitted. It can be calculated for individuals,organisations,products or even countries. Because the definition in the stem mentions greenhouse gases and carbon dioxide equivalent,this term fits exactly.

Option B:
An ecological niche refers to the functional role and position a species occupies in an ecosystem. It has nothing to do with measuring greenhouse gas emissions. Hence it does not match the meaning described in the question.

Option C:
Energy budget generally denotes the balance between energy input and output in a system,such as a city or organism. While related to resource use,it is not a standard measure of greenhouse gas emissions. Therefore it is not the best answer here.

Option D:
Water footprint measures the amount of freshwater used to produce goods and services consumed by an individual or community. It focuses on water use,not greenhouse gas emissions. Thus it does not correspond to the definition given in the stem.

A double-blind design ensures that both participants and the researchers who have contact with them are unaware of which individuals are in the experimental or control group. This reduces expectancy effects, such as participants changing behaviour because they think they are receiving a special treatment, and experimenter bias, where researchers unintentionally influence outcomes. By keeping group assignment concealed from both parties, the design enhances the credibility of observed differences. Therefore, the arrangement described in the stem is correctly called double-blind.

Option A:
Single-blind designs keep group assignment hidden from participants but not from researchers, so experimenter expectations can still influence data collection or interpretation. This makes single-blind less effective than double-blind in controlling expectancy effects, so it does not fully match the stem.

Option B:
Open-label studies are those in which both participants and researchers know who receives the treatment, making them vulnerable to numerous biases. They are not designed to control expectancy effects and therefore are not an appropriate completion.

Option C:
Option C, double-blind, is widely used in clinical trials and psychological experiments to address both participant and experimenter expectations simultaneously. This dual masking corresponds exactly to the description in the question, making it the correct option.

Option D:
Matched-pairs designs pair participants based on similarity in key characteristics before assigning them to different conditions but do not inherently prevent either party from knowing group assignments. Thus, matched-pairs is not the right answer here.

Statements A, B and D correctly describe the nature and prerequisites of e-governance, while statement C is false. E-governance utilises ICT to deliver services and interact with citizens, often improving transparency and accountability. It also depends on adequate infrastructure and digital skills among users. Excluding mobile technologies, as claimed in C, contradicts practice because mobile platforms are now central to many e-governance services. Therefore, the combination A, B and D only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it collects the three statements that match current understanding of e-governance. It recognises the role of ICT in service delivery, the potential for transparency and the importance of citizen readiness. By excluding the incorrect claim about excluding mobile technologies, it reflects realistic e-governance strategies.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes only A and B and leaves out D. Statement D is also true in emphasising that infrastructure and literacy are essential for effective e-governance. Omitting a true statement makes the option incomplete.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it contains B, C and D and thereby accepts C as correct. Statement C wrongly asserts that e-governance does not use mobile technologies, which is inconsistent with many mobile-enabled government services. Including this false statement invalidates the option.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it assumes that all four statements are correct. Accepting C would imply that mobile technologies are always excluded, which is contrary to practice. Since one statement is false, the set of all four cannot be the correct answer.

Kinesics is the technical term used for studying body movements,gestures,posture and facial expressions as forms of communication. It is a major component of non verbal communication research. The stem explicitly mentions body movements and gestures,so the correct term is kinesics.

Option A:
Proxemics focuses on personal space and distance between communicators,not the actual movements of the body.

Option B:
Kinesics examines how gestures such as nodding,shrugging or pointing convey attitudes and meanings beyond words. Since the stem highlights these physical movements,this option is appropriate.

Option C:
Oculesics deals with eye behaviour,including eye contact and gaze,which is only one part of body language.

Option D:
Chronemics is concerned with time-related aspects of communication,not with bodily gestures,making it unsuitable here.

The final part of Lasswell's formula,"with what effect," focuses on the consequences of communication. It asks what changes occur in knowledge,attitudes or behaviour as a result of the message. These changes are the outcomes or effects of communication. Hence,the phrase refers to the outcome of communication.

Option A:
Channel is already covered in the phrase "in which channel" and denotes the medium,not the consequences.

Option B:
The outcome reflects whether the communicator achieved the intended impact on the audience,making option B the precise meaning of "with what effect."

Option C:
Sender is represented by "Who,"so it cannot be the meaning of the last phrase.

Option D:
Noise is not part of Lasswell's formula and instead comes from other models such as Shannon–Weaver.

Discovery learning encourages learners to investigate examples,patterns or data and infer underlying rules or principles themselves. This process promotes deeper understanding and retention because students actively construct meaning. The stem’s emphasis on exploration leading to self-derived principles describes this approach accurately. Therefore,discovery is the appropriate completion.

Option A:
In discovery learning,the teacher provides resources and guidance but does not simply state the rule at the beginning; students are expected to “find out” through exploration,which aligns with the stem.

Option B:
Expository teaching is more direct and teacher-centred,where principles are presented explicitly and students mainly receive them.

Option C:
Rote learning highlights memorisation without understanding and does not involve exploring materials or relationships.

Option D:
Authoritarian approach stresses strict control and obedience,rather than student exploration and autonomy in learning.

Statement A correctly gives the standard formula for percentage change. Statement B is also true because a negative result indicates that the new value is lower than the old one. Statement E is correct as many data interpretation graphs require reading approximate values and working with reasonable approximations. Statement C is false because changing the base (denominator) alters the percentage value, and D is false since a large absolute difference can still yield a small percentage change when the base is large. Thus, A, B and E only are correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it leaves out B, which properly explains the meaning of a negative percentage change.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it combines the correct formula, the interpretation of negative change and the realistic note about approximation, while excluding C and D.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it includes C, which wrongly claims the base value does not matter, and it omits B.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since it contains D (false) and omits A (formula).

Statements A, B, D and E describe important functions of feedback. A is true because feedback indicates how far learners are from desired standards. B is true since teachers use feedback to refine methods, D is true because prompt, considerate feedback is more usable, and E is true as peer and self-assessment supplement teacher feedback. C is false because task-focused comments are more constructive than personal remarks, and F is false since clarifying feedback can help learners act on it better. Therefore A, B, D and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A includes all four true statements about feedback’s role for both learners and teachers, and it omits C and F, which either personalise comments or forbid clarification. This makes A, B, D and E only the correct option.

Option B:
Option B drops E and hence ignores the contribution of peer and self-feedback, focusing only on teacher-driven processes. Because E is also correct, A, B and D only is incomplete.

Option C:
Option C wrongly incorporates F, supporting the idea that feedback should never be revisited, which contradicts iterative learning. Thus B, D, E and F only mixes true and false claims and cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D includes C, which promotes personal rather than task-oriented feedback, and therefore A, C, D and E only contains a false statement that undermines good feedback practice.

Statements A, B, C, D and E accurately describe the core roles of pakṣa, sādhya, hetu, sapakṣa and vipakṣa, whereas F is false. The hill–smoke–fire example neatly illustrates how these roles work together in an inference. Nyaya insists that the hetu must actually qualify the pakṣa; if the reason is absent there, the inference collapses. Sapakṣa and vipakṣa then help to test the reliability of the connection between hetu and sādhya in other cases. Hence F contradicts a basic requirement of Indian inference theory.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, failing to mention the important supporting notions of sapakṣa and vipakṣa that appear in many exam items. While A, B, C and D are correct, they do not fully capture the wider inferential context. Therefore A, B, C and D only is not a complete answer.

Option B:
Option B is wrong as it leaves out A and includes only B, C, D and E. Without A, the definition of pakṣa as the locus of inference is missing, even though it is central to the question. This omission means B, C, D and E only cannot be the correct combination.

Option C:
Option C is correct since it gathers all five true statements and excludes F, which wrongly allows a hetu that does not apply to the pakṣa. It presents the standard structure of Indian inference as taught in UGC NET syllabi. Hence A, B, C, D and E only is the appropriate answer.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it omits B, leaving out the definition of sādhya as the probandum, and includes only A, C, D and E. Without B, the description of the inferential triad is incomplete. As such, this option does not represent all the correct statements.

Statements A, B and D are correct, whereas C is incorrect. A is true because encoding refers to the sender’s work of putting ideas into words, numbers, images or other symbols. B is true as decoding refers to the receiver’s interpretation of those symbols to reconstruct the intended meaning. D is true since when the way the sender encodes differs from how the receiver decodes, misunderstanding can arise. C is false because interpretation depends on the receiver’s decoding skills, not their encoding skills, which relate to message production.

Option A:
Option A includes A and B only and omits D, failing to acknowledge that misalignment between encoding and decoding is a key cause of miscommunication. Although it correctly states the two processes, it does not capture their consequence when they are not aligned. Therefore A and B only is incomplete and cannot be the correct answer.

Option B:
Option B combines A, B and D, covering the nature of encoding and decoding as well as the effect of mismatch between them. It excludes C, which confuses encoding skills with decoding abilities on the receiver’s side. Because it contains all and only the correct statements, A, B and D only is the right answer.

Option C:
Option C lists B and D only and leaves out A, thereby omitting a clear definition of encoding, the complementary process to decoding. While B and D are accurate, the absence of A means that the account of communication processes is partial. Consequently B and D only is not the correct option.

Option D:
Option D brings together A, C and D and wrongly includes C, which misattributes interpretation to encoding skills of the receiver. This mixture of one false statement with two correct ones makes the option logically inconsistent. Hence A, C and D only cannot be chosen.