UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

A carbon footprint quantifies the total greenhouse gas emissions associated with an activity or entity. It expresses different greenhouse gases in a common unit of carbon dioxide equivalent. This helps compare and manage contributions to climate change. Therefore the description in the question clearly corresponds to a carbon footprint.

Option A:
Carbon footprint is specifically used to track how much climate forcing gases are emitted. It can be calculated for individuals,organisations,products or even countries. Because the definition in the stem mentions greenhouse gases and carbon dioxide equivalent,this term fits exactly.

Option B:
An ecological niche refers to the functional role and position a species occupies in an ecosystem. It has nothing to do with measuring greenhouse gas emissions. Hence it does not match the meaning described in the question.

Option C:
Energy budget generally denotes the balance between energy input and output in a system,such as a city or organism. While related to resource use,it is not a standard measure of greenhouse gas emissions. Therefore it is not the best answer here.

Option D:
Water footprint measures the amount of freshwater used to produce goods and services consumed by an individual or community. It focuses on water use,not greenhouse gas emissions. Thus it does not correspond to the definition given in the stem.

A double-blind design ensures that both participants and the researchers who have contact with them are unaware of which individuals are in the experimental or control group. This reduces expectancy effects, such as participants changing behaviour because they think they are receiving a special treatment, and experimenter bias, where researchers unintentionally influence outcomes. By keeping group assignment concealed from both parties, the design enhances the credibility of observed differences. Therefore, the arrangement described in the stem is correctly called double-blind.

Option A:
Single-blind designs keep group assignment hidden from participants but not from researchers, so experimenter expectations can still influence data collection or interpretation. This makes single-blind less effective than double-blind in controlling expectancy effects, so it does not fully match the stem.

Option B:
Open-label studies are those in which both participants and researchers know who receives the treatment, making them vulnerable to numerous biases. They are not designed to control expectancy effects and therefore are not an appropriate completion.

Option C:
Option C, double-blind, is widely used in clinical trials and psychological experiments to address both participant and experimenter expectations simultaneously. This dual masking corresponds exactly to the description in the question, making it the correct option.

Option D:
Matched-pairs designs pair participants based on similarity in key characteristics before assigning them to different conditions but do not inherently prevent either party from knowing group assignments. Thus, matched-pairs is not the right answer here.

Statements A, B and D correctly describe the nature and prerequisites of e-governance, while statement C is false. E-governance utilises ICT to deliver services and interact with citizens, often improving transparency and accountability. It also depends on adequate infrastructure and digital skills among users. Excluding mobile technologies, as claimed in C, contradicts practice because mobile platforms are now central to many e-governance services. Therefore, the combination A, B and D only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it collects the three statements that match current understanding of e-governance. It recognises the role of ICT in service delivery, the potential for transparency and the importance of citizen readiness. By excluding the incorrect claim about excluding mobile technologies, it reflects realistic e-governance strategies.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes only A and B and leaves out D. Statement D is also true in emphasising that infrastructure and literacy are essential for effective e-governance. Omitting a true statement makes the option incomplete.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it contains B, C and D and thereby accepts C as correct. Statement C wrongly asserts that e-governance does not use mobile technologies, which is inconsistent with many mobile-enabled government services. Including this false statement invalidates the option.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it assumes that all four statements are correct. Accepting C would imply that mobile technologies are always excluded, which is contrary to practice. Since one statement is false, the set of all four cannot be the correct answer.

Kinesics is the technical term used for studying body movements,gestures,posture and facial expressions as forms of communication. It is a major component of non verbal communication research. The stem explicitly mentions body movements and gestures,so the correct term is kinesics.

Option A:
Proxemics focuses on personal space and distance between communicators,not the actual movements of the body.

Option B:
Kinesics examines how gestures such as nodding,shrugging or pointing convey attitudes and meanings beyond words. Since the stem highlights these physical movements,this option is appropriate.

Option C:
Oculesics deals with eye behaviour,including eye contact and gaze,which is only one part of body language.

Option D:
Chronemics is concerned with time-related aspects of communication,not with bodily gestures,making it unsuitable here.

The final part of Lasswell's formula,"with what effect," focuses on the consequences of communication. It asks what changes occur in knowledge,attitudes or behaviour as a result of the message. These changes are the outcomes or effects of communication. Hence,the phrase refers to the outcome of communication.

Option A:
Channel is already covered in the phrase "in which channel" and denotes the medium,not the consequences.

Option B:
The outcome reflects whether the communicator achieved the intended impact on the audience,making option B the precise meaning of "with what effect."

Option C:
Sender is represented by "Who,"so it cannot be the meaning of the last phrase.

Option D:
Noise is not part of Lasswell's formula and instead comes from other models such as Shannon–Weaver.

Discovery learning encourages learners to investigate examples,patterns or data and infer underlying rules or principles themselves. This process promotes deeper understanding and retention because students actively construct meaning. The stem’s emphasis on exploration leading to self-derived principles describes this approach accurately. Therefore,discovery is the appropriate completion.

Option A:
In discovery learning,the teacher provides resources and guidance but does not simply state the rule at the beginning; students are expected to “find out” through exploration,which aligns with the stem.

Option B:
Expository teaching is more direct and teacher-centred,where principles are presented explicitly and students mainly receive them.

Option C:
Rote learning highlights memorisation without understanding and does not involve exploring materials or relationships.

Option D:
Authoritarian approach stresses strict control and obedience,rather than student exploration and autonomy in learning.

Statement A correctly gives the standard formula for percentage change. Statement B is also true because a negative result indicates that the new value is lower than the old one. Statement E is correct as many data interpretation graphs require reading approximate values and working with reasonable approximations. Statement C is false because changing the base (denominator) alters the percentage value, and D is false since a large absolute difference can still yield a small percentage change when the base is large. Thus, A, B and E only are correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it leaves out B, which properly explains the meaning of a negative percentage change.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it combines the correct formula, the interpretation of negative change and the realistic note about approximation, while excluding C and D.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it includes C, which wrongly claims the base value does not matter, and it omits B.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since it contains D (false) and omits A (formula).

Statements A, B, D and E describe important functions of feedback. A is true because feedback indicates how far learners are from desired standards. B is true since teachers use feedback to refine methods, D is true because prompt, considerate feedback is more usable, and E is true as peer and self-assessment supplement teacher feedback. C is false because task-focused comments are more constructive than personal remarks, and F is false since clarifying feedback can help learners act on it better. Therefore A, B, D and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A includes all four true statements about feedback’s role for both learners and teachers, and it omits C and F, which either personalise comments or forbid clarification. This makes A, B, D and E only the correct option.

Option B:
Option B drops E and hence ignores the contribution of peer and self-feedback, focusing only on teacher-driven processes. Because E is also correct, A, B and D only is incomplete.

Option C:
Option C wrongly incorporates F, supporting the idea that feedback should never be revisited, which contradicts iterative learning. Thus B, D, E and F only mixes true and false claims and cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D includes C, which promotes personal rather than task-oriented feedback, and therefore A, C, D and E only contains a false statement that undermines good feedback practice.

Statements A, B, C, D and E accurately describe the core roles of pakṣa, sādhya, hetu, sapakṣa and vipakṣa, whereas F is false. The hill–smoke–fire example neatly illustrates how these roles work together in an inference. Nyaya insists that the hetu must actually qualify the pakṣa; if the reason is absent there, the inference collapses. Sapakṣa and vipakṣa then help to test the reliability of the connection between hetu and sādhya in other cases. Hence F contradicts a basic requirement of Indian inference theory.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, failing to mention the important supporting notions of sapakṣa and vipakṣa that appear in many exam items. While A, B, C and D are correct, they do not fully capture the wider inferential context. Therefore A, B, C and D only is not a complete answer.

Option B:
Option B is wrong as it leaves out A and includes only B, C, D and E. Without A, the definition of pakṣa as the locus of inference is missing, even though it is central to the question. This omission means B, C, D and E only cannot be the correct combination.

Option C:
Option C is correct since it gathers all five true statements and excludes F, which wrongly allows a hetu that does not apply to the pakṣa. It presents the standard structure of Indian inference as taught in UGC NET syllabi. Hence A, B, C, D and E only is the appropriate answer.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it omits B, leaving out the definition of sādhya as the probandum, and includes only A, C, D and E. Without B, the description of the inferential triad is incomplete. As such, this option does not represent all the correct statements.

Statements A, B and D are correct, whereas C is incorrect. A is true because encoding refers to the sender’s work of putting ideas into words, numbers, images or other symbols. B is true as decoding refers to the receiver’s interpretation of those symbols to reconstruct the intended meaning. D is true since when the way the sender encodes differs from how the receiver decodes, misunderstanding can arise. C is false because interpretation depends on the receiver’s decoding skills, not their encoding skills, which relate to message production.

Option A:
Option A includes A and B only and omits D, failing to acknowledge that misalignment between encoding and decoding is a key cause of miscommunication. Although it correctly states the two processes, it does not capture their consequence when they are not aligned. Therefore A and B only is incomplete and cannot be the correct answer.

Option B:
Option B combines A, B and D, covering the nature of encoding and decoding as well as the effect of mismatch between them. It excludes C, which confuses encoding skills with decoding abilities on the receiver’s side. Because it contains all and only the correct statements, A, B and D only is the right answer.

Option C:
Option C lists B and D only and leaves out A, thereby omitting a clear definition of encoding, the complementary process to decoding. While B and D are accurate, the absence of A means that the account of communication processes is partial. Consequently B and D only is not the correct option.

Option D:
Option D brings together A, C and D and wrongly includes C, which misattributes interpretation to encoding skills of the receiver. This mixture of one false statement with two correct ones makes the option logically inconsistent. Hence A, C and D only cannot be chosen.

A universal negative proposition has the standard form “No S are P”. It asserts that there is no overlap between the subject class and the predicate class. In traditional terminology this is an E-type proposition, combining universal quantity with negative quality. Thus the complete denial described in the stem is characteristic of a universal negative proposition.

Option A:
Option A, particular affirmative, states that some S are P and thus allows at least one member of the subject class to belong to the predicate class. This is incompatible with the idea that no members belong. Therefore it cannot be correct.

Option B:
Option B is correct because universal negative precisely captures a statement that excludes every subject from the predicate class. This form is central to syllogistic reasoning and to the square of opposition.

Option C:
Option C, universal affirmative, asserts that all S are P, which is the opposite in quality and cannot describe a total denial. It would contradict the kind of proposition mentioned in the question.

Option D:
Option D, particular negative, says that some S are not P, leaving open the possibility that other S might be P. It denies the predicate only of some members, not of all, and so does not fit the stem.

This series is generated by the expression (a_n = 2n^4 - n + 3) for n starting from 1. For n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 we obtain 2−1+3 = 4, 32−2+3 = 33, 162−3+3 = 162, 512−4+3 = 511 and 1250−5+3 = 1248. For n = 6 we compute (2×6^4 - 6 + 3 = 2592 - 3 = 2589). Therefore 2589 is the correct next term.

Option A:
Option A, 2589, coincides with the value of (2n^4 - n + 3) when n = 6. It maintains the same combination of quartic and linear terms that explain all previous numbers. Because it fits the rule exactly, 2589 is the correct continuation.

Option B:
Option B, 2557, is 32 less than the computed value and does not satisfy the expression for n = 6. It would require a sudden drop that has no basis in the pattern, so 2557 is not valid.

Option C:
Option C, 2613, overshoots the predicted value and cannot be obtained from the generating rule. Selecting 2613 would arbitrarily increase the last term and break the algebraic structure. Thus 2613 is not correct.

Option D:
Option D, 2645, deviates even further from 2589 and is not the output of (2n^4 - n + 3) for any integer n continuing the sequence. Adopting 2645 would disrupt the pattern, so it is not the right answer.

Contemporary disaster management frameworks stress that it is more effective to reduce risk before disasters occur than to focus only on relief afterwards. This involves identifying hazards, mitigating vulnerabilities, building preparedness and strengthening early warning and resilience. The key shift is from purely reactive relief to proactive risk reduction and preparedness.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because abandoning mitigation and preparedness would increase disaster losses and keep the approach reactive and short-term.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it describes the widely accepted move towards disaster risk reduction, mitigation and preparedness as emphasised in international frameworks like the Sendai Framework.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since modern practice encourages community participation and local capacity, not only top-down control.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because relying on fate and neglecting early warning systems contradicts the evidence-based, preventive approach of modern disaster management.

Each group uses a sliding window of consecutive prime positions: (2,3,5)=BCE, (3,5,7)=CEG, (5,7,11)=EGK, (7,11,13)=GKM. Next is (11,13,17)=KMQ.

Option A:
Option A uses 8 which is not prime.

Option B:
Option B uses 12 which is not prime (and breaks the prime-based rule).

Option C:
Option C is correct because K(11), M(13), Q(17) are consecutive prime positions after the prior window.

Option D:
Option D starts with L(12), which is not a prime position.

Statements A, B, C and E correctly represent the main features of common attitude scaling techniques. Likert scales use agreement ratings, semantic differential scales use bipolar adjectives and Thurstone scales rely on judges’ weights. These tools generate numerical scores that allow researchers to quantify attitudes for analysis, so E is also correct. Statement D is false because attitude scales are a hallmark of quantitative research and explicitly produce numeric data.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes all four true statements and excludes D, which mischaracterises the quantitative nature of attitude scales. It captures both the structural features of the scales and their function in converting subjective attitudes into numerical form.

Option B:
Option B is incomplete as it omits E, failing to highlight that the purpose of these scales is to create data suitable for statistical analysis. Without E, the significance of assigning numbers to attitudes remains implicit rather than explicit.

Option C:
Option C includes B, C and E but leaves out A, so it does not mention Likert scaling, which is one of the most widely used attitude measures. This omission makes the overview of attitude scales incomplete.

Option D:
Option D contains A, C and E but omits B, ignoring semantic differential scales, which are important for measuring connotative meaning. Leaving out this type of scale means the option cannot be considered a full set of correct statements.