UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Sadhya is the term for what is to be established in the paksha by means of inference. It is the target property whose presence is indicated by the hetu under the guidance of vyapti. Once the inference is completed, the sadhya is asserted of the paksha in the conclusion. Therefore the property mentioned in the stem is called sadhya.

Option A:
Option A, paksha, is the subject in which the sadhya is to be proved and so cannot name the property itself. The example “hill” clearly designates the locus, not the probandum.

Option B:
Option B, hetu, is the reason or sign that points to the sadhya, like smoke, rather than what is finally concluded.

Option C:
Option C is correct because sadhya literally means “that which is to be proved” and captures the goal of the inferential process. Nyaya analyses much of inference in terms of how sadhya is connected to paksha through hetu.

Option D:
Option D, drstanta, is the illustrative example that shows the hetu–sadhya relation, not the property to be proved in the subject.

Statements A, B and D are correct and together emphasise the importance of diversity in agricultural systems. Agro-biodiversity spans genes, species and ecosystems related to agriculture, conserving traditional varieties can improve resilience and farmers’ on-farm practices help maintain this diversity. Statement C is incorrect because long-term sustainability often suffers under extensive monoculture, which can increase vulnerability and degrade ecosystems. Therefore, the combination A, B and D only is the correct answer.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it omits D, which rightly highlights the role of farmers in maintaining agro-biodiversity through their management and selection practices. Excluding this statement gives an incomplete view of conservation strategies.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect as it includes only B and D and leaves out A, which defines agro-biodiversity and is essential for understanding the concept. Without A, the answer loses clarity about the scope of agro-biodiversity.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it gathers all the true statements A, B and D and excludes the misleading assertion in C about monoculture always aiding sustainability. It aligns with agro-ecological thinking that values diversity for long-term resilience and productivity.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since it treats all four statements as correct, thereby endorsing C. This would imply that monoculture invariably improves sustainability, which contradicts evidence from many farming systems.

A deemed to be university is an institution that has demonstrated high standards in a specific area of study and has been granted university status by the central government under the UGC Act. Such institutions enjoy many of the academic powers of universities, including designing courses and awarding degrees. The stem describes recognition by the central government on UGC’s recommendation and granting of university status, which is exactly the process for being declared deemed to be a university. Therefore, Option D is correct.

Option A:
A central university is established by an Act of Parliament and is fully a university from its inception, not an ordinary institution later recognised for excellence. The stem refers to an existing institution that is conferred university status, which is different from the creation of a central university.

Option B:
A state university is set up through a state legislative Act and is not necessarily based on prior recognition of excellence of an existing institution. Thus, this option does not match the process described in the question.

Option C:
An open university focuses on distance and open learning and is defined by its mode of delivery rather than the route by which it gains university status. The stem does not centre on distance mode but on special recognition, so this option is not appropriate.

Option D:
A deemed to be university is given flexibility and autonomy because of its demonstrated quality, although it remains under certain regulatory oversight. This aligns precisely with the description in the stem, confirming Option D as the correct choice.

The bits after the binary point correspond to 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, and 1/16. In 0.1011₂, we have 1×1/2 + 0×1/4 + 1×1/8 + 1×1/16 = 0.5 + 0 + 0.125 + 0.0625 = 0.6875. Thus, the decimal value of 0.1011₂ is 0.6875.

Option A:
Option A correctly sums the contributions of the 2⁻¹, 2⁻³, and 2⁻⁴ places and omits the 2⁻² place because its bit is zero. The resulting 0.6875 accurately reflects the binary pattern.

Option B:
Option B, 0.625, equals 0.5 + 0.125 and would correspond to 0.101₂, which has only three fractional bits. It neglects the contribution of the 2⁻⁴ bit.

Option C:
Option C, 0.75, corresponds to 0.11₂ (0.5 + 0.25) and does not match the given bit arrangement.

Option D:
Option D, 0.5625, equals 0.5 + 0.0625, which would correspond to 0.1001₂. This ignores the 2⁻³ bit present in 0.1011₂.

NEP 2020 suggests that very small, fragmented colleges should be merged or expanded into larger multidisciplinary institutions, typically with 3000 or more students, to ensure viability, diverse offerings and robust academic communities.

Option A:
Maintaining many very small colleges makes it difficult to provide adequate faculty, facilities and programme diversity, which the policy seeks to change.

Option B:
This option describes the preferred model of reasonably large, multidisciplinary institutions outlined in NEP.

Option C:
Deliberately restricting institutions to fewer than 500 students would limit access and contradict the expansion goals of the policy.

Option D:
The policy does not argue for mega universities with over one lakh students as the only model; it prefers moderate but strong institutional sizes.

Statements A, B and D are correct because EMS frameworks like ISO 14001 are designed to improve performance through planning, implementation, auditing and continual improvement. Environmental audits check whether policies and procedures are effective in practice. Statement C is incorrect because EMS standards explicitly require a commitment to comply with applicable legal and other requirements. Thus, the combination A, B and D only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it includes only A and B and omits D. Without recognising the principle of continual improvement, the description of EMS is not fully aligned with standard practice.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it adds C, which wrongly suggests that EMS does not involve legal compliance commitments. Including C contradicts the basic requirements of ISO 14001 and similar standards.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect as it groups B, C and D and treats C as correct. Although B and D are valid, the acceptance of C makes the overall combination inconsistent with EMS principles.

Option D:
Option D is correct since it brings together the three accurate statements and excludes C, which misinterprets the compliance aspect. It reflects the cyclical, performance-improvement nature of EMS and the role of audits.

Statements A, B, C, D and F are correct because they summarise key milestones in environmental diplomacy and note that review conferences revisit and strengthen commitments. Statement E is false, since global summits influence domestic policies, legislation and institutions through norms and obligations. Therefore, the combination including A, B, C, D and F while excluding E is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect as it omits F and thus fails to recognise the importance of periodic review and enhancement of commitments, which is central to many multilateral environmental agreements.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes E, which wrongly asserts that summits do not shape national policy, despite clear evidence of domestic reforms following major conferences.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since it leaves out A and therefore ignores the historical role of the Stockholm Conference in putting environment on the global agenda.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it presents a coherent historical and institutional picture of how summits and agreements operate and evolve, while rejecting the idea that they have no policy influence.

In the classic version of Bloom's taxonomy, the cognitive domain progresses from knowledge through comprehension, application and analysis to synthesis and finally evaluation. Evaluation involves making judgements about the value of ideas or materials using criteria. It demands critical thinking and justification of decisions. Therefore, the highest level in the original taxonomy is correctly identified as evaluation.

Option A:
Comprehension is an early level in the taxonomy that involves understanding meaning but not necessarily applying or judging ideas. It cannot be considered the highest level.

Option B:
Application requires using learned material in new but similar situations, which is more advanced than comprehension but still below the analytic and evaluative levels.

Option C:
Evaluation asks learners to assess the worth of theories, solutions or methods, often by comparing alternatives and providing reasons. Its position at the top of the original taxonomy reflects its complexity and importance in higher education. Because the stem refers to the highest level in the original framework, evaluation is the appropriate choice.

Option D:
Analysis involves breaking material into parts and understanding relationships among them. While it is a higher-order process, in Bloom's original hierarchy it is ranked below synthesis and evaluation.

One of the GBF targets calls for reducing incentives harmful to biodiversity, including subsidies, by at least US$500 billion per year by 2030. The idea is to reorient public support away from activities that degrade ecosystems towards practices that conserve and restore nature. This includes reforming agricultural, fisheries and other sectoral subsidies that drive habitat loss or overexploitation. At the same time, the framework encourages the expansion of positive incentives for sustainable use and conservation. (UNEP - UN Environment Programme)

Option A:
This option reverses the intent of the target by suggesting an increase in harmful subsidies. The framework seeks to reduce and repurpose such incentives, not expand them.

Option B:
This option correctly states the essence of the target: identifying and reforming harmful subsidies to free up at least US$500 billion annually for more sustainable uses. It also notes the parallel need to strengthen positive incentives, which is central to the GBF’s approach.

Option C:
Shifting all subsidies from agriculture to fossil fuels would intensify both biodiversity loss and climate change. The GBF does not propose such a move; instead, it urges reform across sectors, including fossil fuels.

Option D:
The GBF is a global framework and applies to all parties, not only to high-income countries. While responsibilities may differ, restricting reforms only to rich countries would miss substantial harmful subsidies elsewhere.

RFID tags attached to books and other items can be read wirelessly by fixed or handheld readers, so issuing, returning and stock verification become faster and more accurate. Because the tags integrate with the library software, records are updated automatically, which is why tagging items for wireless identification is the primary use of RFID in libraries.

Option A:
This option correctly states that RFID is used to tag items with electronic labels that can be detected without direct contact. The tags and readers enable quick check-out, check-in and inventory control, reducing manual effort and errors.

Option B:
Printing book titles with manual typewriters is a purely mechanical process and does not involve radio-frequency tags, wireless reading or integration with an automated system. It belongs to older record-keeping methods, not RFID-based automation.

Option C:
Sending spam emails is an abuse of communication systems and has nothing to do with RFID tags on physical items. RFID is a short-range identification technology, not an email or messaging tool.

Option D:
Replacing digital catalogues with handwritten registers actually moves away from ICT-based management. RFID is normally used together with electronic catalogues, not to eliminate them.

Statements A, B, C and E correctly summarise Nyaya’s account of perception and its exam relevance. Illusion is not treated as a separate pramāṇa in Nyaya; rather, it is an erroneous cognition analysed within its theory of error, so D is false. Statement F is also false since many schools explicitly discuss perceptual error and its explanations. Therefore the correct combination of true statements is A, B, C and E only.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it brings together the core Nyaya claims about perception, distinguishes determinate and indeterminate types and notes that UGC NET may test these distinctions. It rightly excludes D and F, which misrepresent Nyaya and other Indian views on error and pramāṇa classification.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect as it accepts D, wrongly elevating illusion to an independent source of valid knowledge. In Nyaya, illusory cognition is not pramāṇa because it does not yield truth. Including D makes this option inaccurate.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it omits A and includes F, thereby losing the definition of pratyakṣa as direct sense contact and adding the false claim that all schools deny perceptual error. This creates a distorted picture of Indian epistemology.

Option D:
Option D is also incorrect since it adds F and omits B, dropping the account of savikalpa perception and endorsing a false universal denial of error. For these reasons, it does not present the full set of correct statements.

Statements A and B correctly describe simple random and stratified sampling. Statement C is also true as cluster sampling initially chooses whole clusters for inclusion. Statement E is correct because systematic sampling indeed selects every nth unit after a random start. Statement D is false since convenience sampling is non-probability based and can easily introduce bias. Thus, A, B, C and E only are correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it omits E (systematic sampling).

Option B:
Option B is wrong because it includes D (false).

Option C:
Option C is correct because it unites all of the true descriptions and excludes D.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since it retains D (false) and omits A.

Profit is the difference between selling price and cost price, so here profit = 920 − 800 = ₹120. The profit percentage is calculated on cost price as (Profit ÷ Cost price) × 100, giving (120 ÷ 800) × 100 = 15%. Thus, the trader earns a profit of 15% on the article. This matches option A.

Option A:
Option A is correct because the calculation based on the formula yields exactly 15%. A 15% increase on ₹800 is 0.15 × 800 = 120, leading to a selling price of 920, which fits the data given. Recognising this pattern helps students quickly check their answers in profit and loss questions.

Option B:
A profit of 10% on ₹800 would be ₹80, resulting in a selling price of ₹880, which is lower than the actual selling price. This does not match the information in the problem. Hence, 10% is not the correct profit percentage.

Option C:
A profit of 12% would be 0.12 × 800 = ₹96, giving a selling price of ₹896. This is still less than ₹920 and therefore inconsistent with the stated transaction. As a result, 12% is not the right answer.

Option D:
A profit of 20% would imply 0.20 × 800 = ₹160 as profit and a selling price of ₹960, which is higher than the given selling price. Thus, 20% overestimates the gain and cannot be correct.

To convert 0.625 to binary, we multiply the fraction repeatedly by 2 and record integer parts. 0.625×2 = 1.25 gives 1, leaving 0.25; 0.25×2 = 0.5 gives 0, leaving 0.5; 0.5×2 = 1.0 gives 1, leaving 0. Thus, the bits after the point are 1,0,1, yielding 0.101₂. Therefore, 0.625₁₀ equals 0.101₂.

Option A:
Option A correctly applies the fractional conversion algorithm and identifies the sequence of integer parts as 1, 0, and 1. This precisely encodes the contributions 1/2 and 1/8, which sum to 0.625, making 0.101₂ the correct binary fraction.

Option B:
Option B, 0.011₂, corresponds to 0/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 = 0.375, which is lower than 0.625 and misses the 1/2 component. Thus, it does not match the given decimal fraction.

Option C:
Option C, 0.110₂, equals 1/2 + 1/4 = 0.75, which overshoots 0.625. This sequence of bits adds too much fractional value, making it incorrect for 0.625.

Option D:
Option D, 0.1001₂, represents 1/2 + 0/4 + 0/8 + 1/16 = 0.5625, which is close but still less than 0.625. It arises from a mistaken final step in the conversion algorithm.

Statements A, B and D together provide a balanced view of freedom and accountability. Academic freedom is recognised but within ethical and legal norms, accountability covers quality and responsible use of resources, and governance frameworks aim to protect freedom while ensuring fairness and transparency. Statements C, E and F are false because faculty must still follow codes of conduct, public institutions are accountable to stakeholders, and accountability mechanisms can coexist with academic freedom when properly designed.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect as it omits D and therefore does not explicitly mention governance frameworks that reconcile freedom with responsibility, which is a key point in current debates.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it leaves out A, so it does not clearly state what academic freedom entails even though it mentions accountability and governance.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes E, which wrongly claims that students and society have no stake in the exercise of academic freedom, contradicting the idea of public responsibility.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it selects A, B and D, the three statements that jointly define academic freedom, explain accountability and describe governance frameworks, while excluding C, E and F, which misrepresent codes of conduct, public stake and compatibility of review processes.