UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Classical Nyāya recognises exactly four independent pramāṇas: perception (pratyakṣa), inference (anumāna), comparison (upamāna) and verbal testimony (śabda). Every other alleged means is either reduced to one of these or rejected as independent.

Option A:
Option A lists perception, inference, comparison and testimony, which is the standard fourfold Nyāya scheme.

Option B:
Option B replaces comparison with memory, but Nyāya treats memory as reproduction of past knowledge, not a fresh pramāṇa.

Option C:
Option C omits inference and adds presumption, which classical Nyāya does not accept as a separate pramāṇa.

Option D:
Option D substitutes non perception for testimony; recognition of non perception as an independent pramāṇa belongs to other schools, not to classical Nyāya.

Anupalabdhi is introduced to account for our apparent direct awareness of something being absent, as when we recognise “there is no pot on the floor.” Proponents argue that such awareness cannot be fully reduced to other pramāṇas like perception or inference and therefore deserves separate acknowledgment. The cognition is triggered by appropriate non perception under suitable conditions and is said to present absence as its own kind of object.

Option A:
Option A wrongly limits anupalabdhi to universals; absence can concern particular items like “this pot” as well as general states.

Option B:
Option B focuses on substances rather than their non existence; anupalabdhi concerns knowing that a substance is not present in a locus.

Option C:
Option C correctly states that the pramāṇa is meant to deliver immediate awareness of absence or non existence in a specified place and time.

Option D:
Option D ties the cognition exclusively to scripture, whereas anupalabdhi is usually discussed in perceptual contexts, such as seeing an empty ground and cognising lack.

Let the total number of people be represented as 100%. If 20% like neither tea nor coffee, then 80% like at least one of the two beverages. By the inclusion–exclusion principle, the percentage who like at least one is the sum of tea-likers and coffee-likers minus those who like both. Thus, 80 = 70 + 40 − (both). Solving this gives (both) = 70 + 40 − 80 = 30%.

Option A:
Option A, 20%, equals the proportion who like neither, not those who like both, and so confuses the outside region with the intersection.

Option B:
Option B calculates the intersection using inclusion–exclusion and ensures that the total does not exceed 100%. It matches the only value that makes the percentages internally consistent.

Option C:
Option C, 40%, would give 70 + 40 − 40 = 70% liking at least one, which contradicts the information that 20% like neither and thus only 80% like at least one.

Option D:
Option D, 50%, creates an even larger overlap and leads to a sum exceeding the allowed total, making the data inconsistent.

Pedagogical content knowledge (PCK) refers to a teacher’s ability to represent subject matter in ways that are understandable and learnable for students. It blends deep content understanding with knowledge of pedagogy,including suitable examples,analogies and explanations. The stem describes selecting examples and analogies to make complex content easier,which is a direct expression of PCK.

Option A:
Pure content knowledge involves knowing facts,concepts and procedures in a subject but does not necessarily include understanding how to teach them effectively.

Option B:
Raw content knowledge similarly refers to unprocessed subject expertise without pedagogical adaptation.

Option C:
Pedagogical content knowledge is what differentiates an expert teacher from someone who merely knows the subject,so it is the correct completion for the behaviour described.

Option D:
Administrative knowledge concerns organisational procedures,rules and paperwork and is not related to selecting teaching examples.

Statements A, B, C and E are correct because rating scales can measure attitudes or performance, halo effect reflects spill-over of overall impressions, leniency/severity errors indicate consistent over- or under-rating and training with clear criteria can improve reliability. Statement D is false as avoiding rater training is likely to increase bias rather than reduce it. Thus, the combination that includes A, B, C and E and excludes D is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it leaves out E, ignoring the important role of clear criteria and training in improving rating quality. Without E, strategies for reducing errors remain underemphasised.

Option B:
Option B is wrong because it omits A and includes only B, C and E. While those three are true, leaving out A fails to mention the broad applicability of rating scales to attitudes, behaviours or performance.

Option C:
Option C is correct as it gathers all four accurate statements about what rating scales can assess, the nature of halo and leniency/severity errors and the value of training and criteria. It appropriately rejects D, which wrongly discourages rater training.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats D as acceptable by including it in the combination and omits B and C, thus downplaying well-established rater errors. Including D means endorsing a practice that would likely increase bias.

In cloud computing, Software as a Service provides ready to use applications over the internet. Users access the software through a browser without managing installation or maintenance on local machines. Many LMS platforms are offered as SaaS to educational institutions. Therefore, the scenario described clearly fits Software as a Service.

Option A:
Option A is correct because SaaS specifically refers to using complete applications hosted by a provider and accessed online. It removes the need for local installation and updates. In educational contexts, cloud based LMS and office suites are classic examples of SaaS.

Option B:
Option B, Platform as a Service, focuses on providing development platforms and tools for building applications, not full ready to use applications for end users. PaaS targets developers rather than ordinary institutional users. Hence it does not best describe simply using an LMS online.

Option C:
Option C, Infrastructure as a Service, provides virtual machines, storage and networks, which are lower level building blocks. Institutions still need to install and manage their own software on top of IaaS. This is different from directly consuming a finished LMS via browser.

Option D:
Option D, Data as a Service, emphasises access to data through APIs and not complete application functionality. While data may be involved, the question highlights software use, so DaaS is not the most accurate fit.

Statements A, B, C and E describe standard cyber security practices, while D and F are clearly wrong. Phishing seeks to harvest information, so users need strong passwords, antivirus protection and updated software to reduce risk. Opening suspicious attachments deliberately increases the chance of infection, and claiming that only IT staff are responsible ignores the critical role of user behaviour. Thus the correct combination comprises A, B, C and E only.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it includes F, which wrongly limits cyber security responsibility to IT staff only. Even though A, B, C and E are correct, including F makes the combination invalid.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it gathers together phishing awareness, password hygiene, malware defence and patch management while excluding unsafe ideas in D and F. It matches the comprehensive set of correct statements given in the stem.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it introduces F, which absolves users of responsibility. Even though B, C and E are true, including F contradicts modern cyber security training that emphasises user vigilance.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it leaves out B and includes F. It underplays the importance of strong passwords and suggests security is only an IT concern, so this combination cannot be considered correct.

Agenda setting theory states that media may not tell people what to think,but they are very effective in telling people what to think about. Continuous coverage of certain issues makes them seem more important in the public mind. The stem describes this influence on perceived importance,which is the essence of agenda setting.

Option A:
Surveillance refers to media’s role in providing information about events in the environment,but does not specifically address issue priority.

Option B:
Gatekeeping is about selecting which stories are broadcast,while agenda setting focuses on the cumulative effect of coverage on public priorities.

Option C:
Noise is interference with signal transmission and does not explain why some issues become highly salient.

Option D:
Agenda setting helps explain why some topics dominate public debate even if others are equally serious,making option D appropriate.

Statements A, B, D and E reflect sound ICT planning practice, while C and F ignore critical risk and integration issues. Power backup, physical security and interoperability are essential to ensure continuity and compatibility. Needs assessments and stakeholder inputs help align infrastructure with institutional goals, and cost of ownership looks beyond initial purchase price. Consequently, the combination A, B, D and E only is the correct set.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, which highlights the value of consulting stakeholders such as teachers, students and administrators. Without E, the planning process may not capture diverse requirements and constraints.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it collects statements that emphasise systematic analysis, costing, technical robustness and participatory decision-making. By excluding C and F, it rejects the dangerous idea that security and interoperability can be ignored.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes F, which wrongly claims that interoperability should never be considered. Including such a statement contradicts best practices for integrating new and legacy systems.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it accepts F as well, implicitly endorsing planning that ignores how new ICT components will work with existing infrastructure. This would likely lead to inefficiencies and additional costs.

The decimal 511 is equal to 2⁹ − 1, which is one less than 512 and corresponds to nine ones in binary. In octal, this boundary value is represented as 777. 777₈ expands to 7×8² + 7×8¹ + 7×8⁰ = 448 + 56 + 7 = 511. Thus 777 is the correct octal representation of 511.

Option A:
757₈ equals 7×64 + 5×8 + 7 = 448 + 40 + 7 = 495. This is less than 511, so it does not match the given decimal number.

Option B:
767₈ represents 7×64 + 6×8 + 7 = 448 + 48 + 7 = 503. Because 503 differs from 511, this octal number is not correct.

Option C:
775₈ stands for 7×64 + 7×8 + 5 = 448 + 56 + 5 = 509. This value is close to but still less than 511, so it cannot be the exact representation.

Option D:
777₈ expands to 448 + 56 + 7 = 511, exactly equal to the decimal number specified. Its all-7 pattern reflects the maximum value for three octal digits, analogous to all ones in binary.

This series is governed by the rule aₙ = 2n⁴ + n² + 6 with n starting from 1. For n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 we obtain 9, 42, 177, 534 and 1281, which perfectly matches the given sequence. For n = 6, the formula yields a₆ = 2·6⁴ + 6² + 6 = 2·1296 + 36 + 6 = 2592 + 42 = 2634. Therefore 2634 is the only value that continues this quartic-based pattern correctly.

Option A:
Option A, 2610, is 24 less than the value given by 2n⁴ + n² + 6 at n = 6. To choose 2610 we would have to reduce the correct result at this stage, despite the formula fitting earlier terms exactly. This inconsistency makes option A incorrect.

Option B:
Option B, 2622, is 12 less than the correct answer and likewise does not equal 2·6⁴ + 6² + 6. It provides a close but still inaccurate figure that breaks the exact functional relation. Hence option B cannot be accepted as the next term.

Option C:
Option C, 2646, is 12 greater than the correct value 2634 and cannot be obtained from the rule at n = 6. Accepting 2646 would amount to inflating the polynomial output at only one position, which is not supported by the data. Thus option C is not a valid continuation of the number series.

Option D:
Option D, 2634, matches exactly the value produced by the formula for n = 6. It keeps the same contributions from the quartic term, the square term and the constant used earlier. Because this number arises directly from the established pattern, option D is the correct answer.

Statements A and C both capture the cross-multiplication property of equal ratios in a proportion. Statement B is a direct algebraic consequence of A when all terms are non-zero. Statement D is correct because multiplying or dividing each term by the same non-zero factor leaves the ratio unchanged. Statement E is false, since if a:b = 2:3, then b:a should be 3:2, not 3:4. Therefore, A, B, C and D only form the correct set, which is option D.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it has only A, B and C and omits D, thereby ignoring the important rule about scaling ratios, which is frequently used in simplifying or comparing them.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it omits B (true) and so fails to include the fraction form a/c = b/d implied by a:b = c:d.

Option C:
Option C is incomplete since it excludes A; without stating ad = bc explicitly, the key proportionality check is missing even though some other statements are true.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it gathers all the fundamental properties of proportions and ratio scaling while excluding E, which misstates the inverse ratio of 2:3.

Statements A, C, D and F are correct because models use scenarios to simulate future climates, uncertainty has multiple sources, scenario outputs can still guide risk management, and ensembles provide ranges instead of a single number. Statement B is false since different models often produce different regional projections due to structural differences. Statement E is also false because uncertainty is a reason to manage risk more carefully, not to ignore climate impacts in decisions. Hence, the combination containing A, C, D and F only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect as it omits F and thus ignores the role of ensemble projections in dealing with uncertainty. Without F, the approach to characterising ranges of outcomes is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it lists all the true statements and excludes B and E, which mistakenly assume identical outputs or deny the usefulness of projections for decision-making.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since it includes E, which suggests that uncertain information cannot be used in decisions, contradicting risk management principles. It also omits A, so it fails to mention what climate models actually do.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it includes B, which wrongly claims all models give identical rainfall projections, even though structural differences lead to varying regional outcomes.

Statements A, B and D together provide a correct overview of key statutory academic bodies. The Academic Council does frame academic policies, Executive Council or Syndicate takes major executive decisions, and Boards of Studies design and recommend courses and syllabi to the Academic Council. A Student Union is not the highest statutory authority, and statutory bodies must keep minutes and follow formal procedures. Thus C, E and F are incorrect because they misrepresent the formal and documented nature of university governance.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes the three true statements describing the roles of Academic Council, Executive Council or Syndicate and Boards of Studies and excludes C, E and F, which wrongly elevate student unions or deny formal procedures.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it excludes D and therefore ignores the important role of Boards of Studies in initiating and revising syllabi before Academic Council approval.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it omits A and includes only B and D, so it fails to mention explicitly that the Academic Council is the highest academic body, a central fact for understanding governance.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it lists only A and D and leaves out B, thus not acknowledging the executive role of the Executive Council or Syndicate in university decision-making.

When order does not matter, the number of ways to choose r objects from n is given by the combination formula nCr. Here n is 5 and r is 2, so the number of committees is 5C2. Using the formula, 5C2 = 5! ÷ (2! × 3!) = (5 × 4) ÷ (2 × 1) = 10. Therefore, there are 10 distinct ways to select a pair of students from the group.

Option A:
Option A, 5, corresponds to the number of students rather than the number of pairs that can be formed. It ignores the multiple distinct combinations that are possible when selecting two members.

Option B:
Option B, 8, does not match the combinatorial calculation for 5C2 and appears to be an arbitrary number without basis in the formula.

Option C:
Option C, 9, is close to 10 but still does not equal the true combination count as derived from factorial operations, showing a small but important error.

Option D:
Option D correctly employs the combination formula and simplifies it accurately. It recognizes that for each choice of two students, the order is irrelevant, leading to exactly 10 possible committees.