UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Replacement level fertility is the level of childbearing at which each generation of women is producing enough daughters to replace themselves. In human populations it is slightly above two children per woman in many contexts because some children die before reaching reproductive age. The stem clearly refers to fertility that allows a population to replace itself over time. Hence replacement level fertility is the correct term.

Option A:
High fertility simply indicates that women are having many children,typically well above the replacement level. Such fertility usually leads to rapid population growth rather than stability,so it does not fit the description in the question.

Option B:
Replacement level fertility is central to discussions of population stabilisation and long term demographic planning. When sustained over time and combined with balanced migration,it leads to a roughly stable population size. This makes it the most appropriate option for the stem.

Option C:
Total fertility normally refers to the total fertility rate,which is a measure of average births per woman but can be higher or lower than replacement level. It is a related statistic but not specifically the level at which replacement occurs.

Option D:
Optimum fertility is not a standard demographic measure and could be interpreted in various normative ways. It does not have the precise meaning described in the question stem,so it is not the best answer.

To find the smallest number to be added, we first determine the remainder when 625 is divided by 7. Since 7 × 89 = 623, the remainder is 625 − 623 = 2. A number is divisible by 7 when the remainder becomes zero, so we must add a number that brings the remainder 2 up to 7. Therefore, we add 5 (because 2 + 5 = 7), making 625 + 5 = 630, which is divisible by 7.

Option A:
Option A correctly uses the idea that the required adjustment is 7 minus the remainder. With a remainder of 2, adding 5 eliminates the remainder and yields a number (630) that lies exactly on the 7-times table.

Option B:
Option B, 2, would produce 627, and 627 ÷ 7 still leaves a remainder because 7 × 89 = 623 and 7 × 90 = 630. Thus, 627 is not divisible by 7.

Option C:
Option C, 4, gives 629, which also falls between multiples of 7 and leaves a nonzero remainder, so it does not satisfy the condition.

Option D:
Option D, 6, would lead to 631, which again does not align with a multiple of 7, because the nearest multiples are 630 and 637.

Academic capitalism refers to the adoption of market-like behaviours by universities. This includes competing for external grants, patenting research and designing revenue-generating programmes. The stem’s examples match these market-oriented practices. Therefore, “capitalism” is the correct completion of the term.

Option A:
Socialism emphasises collective ownership and egalitarian distribution and is not the concept used to describe market behaviour in universities. Thus, this option does not align with the stem.

Option B:
Capitalism focuses on markets, competition and profit-seeking, which is exactly the lens used when scholars talk about academic capitalism. It captures the commercial pressures shaping institutional strategies, making this option appropriate.

Option C:
Feudalism refers to a historical land-based hierarchical system and has no direct connection with modern university–industry relations. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Option D:
Fundamentalism is associated with rigid adherence to certain beliefs and does not describe economic strategies of universities in the global market. Therefore, this option is not suitable.

Renewable energy sources are those that are replenished naturally on a human time scale and are not depleted by regular use. Solar energy is derived from sunlight, which is essentially inexhaustible for human purposes. Using solar energy reduces dependence on fossil fuels and lowers greenhouse gas emissions. Therefore, solar energy is correctly identified as a renewable source, making option A correct.

Option A:
Option A is correct because solar energy relies on the continuous flow of solar radiation, which is naturally replenished each day. It does not get exhausted like fossil fuels and is considered a key pillar of sustainable energy transitions.

Option B:
Option B, coal, is a fossil fuel formed over millions of years and is non-renewable on human time scales. Once extracted and burnt, it cannot be quickly replaced.

Option C:
Option C, petroleum, is also a fossil fuel that is finite and non-renewable. Its extraction and use contribute significantly to air pollution and climate change.

Option D:
Option D, natural gas, while cleaner than coal and oil in terms of emissions, is still a fossil fuel and non-renewable. It also releases carbon dioxide when burned and can leak methane during extraction and transport.

Statements A, B, D and E are correct because they outline how poverty and environment interact in both directions and how policy can change the relationship. Overuse of resources can degrade environments, which then deepens poverty, but sustainable livelihoods, clean energy and secure tenure can reduce pressure and vulnerability. Statement C is false because the relationship is context-specific and complex, and F is false because poor communities do participate, though they may face barriers. Therefore, the correct combination is A, B, D and E only.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect as it lists only A and B and omits D and E. While A and B capture the basic two-way link, they ignore policy levers such as livelihood diversification and improved access to energy and land, which are central to breaking traps.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it covers both the negative feedbacks and the main positive interventions in the poverty–environment discussion. It also excludes simplistic or disempowering views represented by C and F.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since it includes F and excludes D. F wrongly suggests poor communities never participate, ignoring examples of community forest management and other initiatives, while leaving out D underplays the role of sustainable livelihoods.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as it again accepts F and excludes A. By omitting A, it fails to acknowledge how survival strategies can cause degradation, while still retaining a false statement about participation.

A’s one-day work is 1/12 of the job and B’s one-day work is 1/20 of the job. The combined one-day work is therefore 1/12 + 1/20. Using the least common multiple of 12 and 20, which is 60, this becomes (5 + 3) / 60 = 8 / 60 = 2 / 15. The total time required is the reciprocal of 2 / 15, which is 15 / 2 or 7.5 days. Thus, together they will finish the work in 7.5 days.

Option A:
Option A, 6 days, is too small and would imply a higher combined rate than 2/15 per day. It suggests that the two workers together are even more efficient than the calculations show.

Option B:
Option B accurately reflects the reciprocal of the combined daily work fraction. It respects the principle that joint work rates add and that the total time is found by inverting the sum.

Option C:
Option C, 8 days, overestimates the time and corresponds to a smaller combined rate than the actual 2/15 of the work per day.

Option D:
Option D, 10 days, is even less efficient and ignores the substantial contribution B adds when working alongside A.

Statement D is the only wrong statement because altering data to fit expectations is a clear form of falsification and is strictly unethical. Statements A, B and C correctly define plagiarism, fabrication and falsification as forms of research misconduct. Statement E correctly notes that standard ethical codes explicitly prohibit all three practices. Therefore, D alone represents a view that contradicts accepted ethical standards.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it treats A together with D as wrong, even though A correctly defines plagiarism as misappropriation of others’ work. Since only D endorses unethical behaviour, grouping A with it misrepresents ethical principles.

Option B:
Option B wrongly suggests that both C and D are wrong. In reality, C accurately defines falsification as manipulative distortion of research procedures or data. This option therefore mislabels a correct statement as wrong.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it isolates D as the sole statement endorsing an unethical practice, namely altering data to match hypotheses. It implicitly affirms that A, B, C and E are in line with standard research ethics, which is consistent with accepted codes of conduct.

Option D:
Option D incorrectly includes B and E among the wrong statements. B correctly describes fabrication as making up data, and E correctly notes that guidelines forbid such behaviour. By treating these as wrong, the option conflicts with basic ethical definitions.

Option E misclassifies C and E as wrong along with D, even though both C and E accurately describe elements of research ethics and misconduct. This broad mislabelling shows conceptual confusion and renders the option unacceptable.

Statements A, B, C and E correctly explain how truth tables are used to test validity, while D and F are false. Validity is checked by looking for a counterexample row with true premises and false conclusion, and the absence of such a row shows validity. The number of rows indeed increases exponentially with the number of distinct simple propositions. D is wrong because truth tables work for any finite number of premises, and F is unrealistic about exam expectations, where simpler reasoning is usually sufficient.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, failing to mention the key fact that truth table size grows rapidly with the number of propositions. While A, B and C correctly describe the validity test, they do not fully address the structure of truth tables. Hence this option does not contain all the correct statements.

Option B:
Option B is correct since it brings together the procedural rules for testing validity and the structural observation about row growth, without adding the unrealistic or incorrect claims of D and F. It captures both conceptual understanding and practical awareness. Therefore this option is consistent with how truth tables are taught for UGC NET.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it includes F, implying that students must always construct very large tables during the exam, which is not expected at Paper 1 level. It also omits C’s explicit statement of the condition for validity. This combination therefore misrepresents both difficulty and method.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as it includes F and omits A, losing the basic explanation of how truth tables identify invalidity. With F present, it misleads students about exam requirements, and the absence of A leaves out the essential test for counterexamples. Thus B, C, E and F only cannot be the right answer.

A contradiction is a statement that cannot be true in any possible situation because its form guarantees falsity on every line of its truth table. It is logically inconsistent and unsatisfiable, meaning no assignment of truth values makes it hold. Such statements often arise from combining a claim and its negation. Therefore the statement described in the stem is accurately called a contradiction.

Option A:
Option A is correct because contradictions exhibit the extreme case of logical falsity: they are false in all possible worlds or under all valuations. Recognising contradictions is important in proofs by contradiction and in detecting inconsistent sets of premises.

Option B:
Option B, tautology, is the exact opposite: a statement that is true under every possible assignment of truth values. While it also has a uniform truth-value pattern, that pattern is truth rather than falsehood.

Option C:
Option C, contingency, is true under some assignments and false under others, which is the normal status of most factual claims. The stem, however, speaks of a statement that is false in every possible case.

Option D:
Option D, hypothesis, refers to a provisional assumption or conjecture and does not specify a particular truth-table pattern. A hypothesis could be a tautology, contradiction or contingency depending on its logical form and content.

A computer virus is designed to spread by inserting its code into host programs or documents. When an infected file runs, the virus activates, potentially damaging data or degrading performance. It may also attempt to infect additional files or systems. This behaviour of attaching and replicating is central to standard definitions of a virus.

Option A:
Protective software is the opposite of a virus; it is meant to detect and remove malicious code. Claiming that a virus always speeds up a system contradicts its harmful nature.

Option B:
A hardware device used for boosting Wi-Fi signals, such as a router or range extender, is part of the network infrastructure, not malicious code. It does not attach itself to files or replicate, so it is not a virus.

Option C:
This option correctly distinguishes viruses from other malware such as worms, which can spread independently, and trojans, which masquerade as useful programs. It captures the key idea of replication through host files.

Option D:
Desktop wallpaper images are graphical elements without self-replicating logic. They do not spread themselves or infect programs, so they are not viruses.

Ethical conduct, confidentiality and fairness are professional standards; adhering to them reflects teacher professionalism.

Option A:
Popularity is being liked and does not equal ethical/professional compliance.

Option B:
Professionalism includes ethics, confidentiality and fair evaluation, matching the stem.

Option C:
Charisma is personal charm and cannot replace ethical responsibilities.

Option D:
Seniority is years of service and does not guarantee ethical professional conduct.

The operating system is the core system software that coordinates interactions between hardware and application programs. It handles tasks such as memory allocation, process scheduling, file management and device control. Without an operating system, most applications cannot run effectively. Hence, the managing software described in the stem is the operating system.

Option A:
Option A is correct because definitions of operating systems consistently emphasise resource management and service provision for applications. Examples include Windows, Linux and macOS, all of which perform the roles listed in the question.

Option B:
Option B, word processor, is a specific application for creating and editing documents and does not manage hardware resources. It itself depends on the operating system to function.

Option C:
Option C, browser extension, is an add-on module that enhances browser capabilities and cannot perform system-wide resource management.

Option D:
Option D, device driver, is a specialised program that allows the operating system to communicate with a specific hardware component, but it is not the overarching manager of all resources.

Each group is a three letter palindrome where the first and last letters are the same and increase in order A, B, C, D. The middle letters move backwards from the end of the alphabet in the order Z, Y, X, W. The next outer letter should be E and the next middle letter in this backward sequence should be V. Thus EVE is the only group that satisfies both movements simultaneously.

Option A:
Option A, EUE, uses E correctly as the outer letter but chooses U instead of V for the middle position. The middle letters have been stepping down one letter at a time from Z, and U would skip V in that sequence. Because it breaks this simple reverse progression, EUE cannot be the right continuation.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it combines E as the next outer letter and V as the next middle letter after W. It preserves the palindromic structure and keeps the two opposing movements of outer letters forward and inner letters backward perfectly intact. This strict adherence to the observed pattern makes EVE the logical next term.

Option C:
Option C, EVF, is not a palindrome at all since the first and last letters do not match. The series clearly uses groups where the outer letters are identical. By breaking this defining structural feature, EVF fails to follow the pattern of the series.

Option D:
Option D, EWE, keeps the palindromic structure but repeats W as the middle letter instead of moving to V. This freezes the backward movement of the central letters, which has been consistent so far. Therefore EWE does not continue the pattern correctly.

This series follows the rule aₙ = 2n⁴ + 5n² + 3 with n starting from 1. Substituting n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 yields 2+5+3 = 10, 32+20+3 = 55, 162+45+3 = 210, 512+80+3 = 595 and 1250+125+3 = 1378, which matches the given numbers. For n = 6 we compute 2·6⁴+5·6²+3 = 2592+180+3 = 2775. Therefore 2775 is the unique next term consistent with this quartic-plus-quadratic-plus-constant structure.

Option A:
Option A, 2715, is 60 less than the formula output and does not satisfy aₙ = 2n⁴+5n²+3 for n = 6. It introduces an arbitrary downward adjustment that is not indicated by the previous terms. Hence option A is incorrect.

Option B:
Option B, 2775, equals exactly the value obtained by applying the expression to n = 6. It preserves the same coefficients and constant term that were used to generate all earlier entries in the series. Because it fits seamlessly into the algebraic rule, 2775 is the correct next term.

Option C:
Option C, 2835, overshoots the correct value by 60 and again does not arise from substituting n = 6 into the rule. Choosing 2835 would inflate the sixth term without any support from the structure of the series. Therefore option C is incorrect.

Option D:
Option D, 2895, deviates even more from the computed value and has no foundation in the expression 2n⁴+5n²+3. Using 2895 would destroy the precise link between index and term, so option D is incorrect.

NEP 2020 proposes the Gender Inclusion Fund to help states design and implement programmes that remove barriers faced by girls and transgender learners. This includes facilities like hostels, toilets, safety measures and scholarships directly linked to educational participation.

Option A:
This option is correct because it describes educational interventions—hostels, sanitary facilities and scholarships—that match the stated purpose of the Gender Inclusion Fund.

Option B:
Funding sports mega-events only for boys would reinforce gender inequality and does not align with the fund’s focus on inclusion for girls and transgender learners.

Option C:
Providing subsidies solely to private coaching centres does not directly address access, safety or infrastructure needs in school education for marginalised genders.

Option D:
Financing commercial projects that are unrelated to education falls outside the scope of a fund meant specifically for gender inclusion in education.