UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

If A and B share profits in the ratio 7:9, the total number of parts is 7 + 9 = 16. Each part is worth ₹1,60,000 ÷ 16 = ₹10,000. A’s share is 7 × ₹10,000 = ₹70,000 and B’s share is 9 × ₹10,000 = ₹90,000. The difference between their shares is ₹90,000 − ₹70,000 = ₹20,000.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it directly reflects the difference between 7 parts and 9 parts when each part is ₹10,000. The arithmetic shows that the financial gap between A and B is exactly two parts, which equals ₹20,000. This fits both the total profit and the specified sharing ratio.

Option B:
Option B, ₹22,000, would not correspond to an integer number of ratio parts, given that each part is ₹10,000. It would imply a difference of 2.2 parts, which contradicts the whole-number nature of the ratio 7:9 and the discrete sharing of profit.

Option C:
Option C, ₹24,000, would amount to a difference of 2.4 parts, which again is inconsistent with the ratio 7:9. Using this figure would mean the implied total profit cannot be exactly ₹1,60,000 when aligned with the ratio.

Option D:
Option D, ₹25,000, suggests an even more irregular difference and would break the connection between the ratio parts and the fixed total profit. When we reverse-calculate, no whole-number ratio 7:9 with a total of 16 parts yields a difference of ₹25,000, so this option is impossible under the given conditions.

Statements A, B and D are correct and together explain the distinction between mitigation and adaptation. Mitigation is about reducing emissions, adaptation is about adjusting systems to cope with impacts and climate-resilient crops are a clear example of adaptation. Statement C is conceptually incorrect in this context because afforestation and tree planting as carbon sinks are typically classified as mitigation actions, although they may have some adaptive co-benefits. Hence, the combination that includes A, B and D only is the correct answer.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it includes A and B but omits D, which is also a correct example of adaptation. While A and B provide definitions, leaving out D means the option does not fully represent the set of correct statements requested. A complete answer must recognise a concrete adaptation example as well.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it groups B and D only, leaving out A. Although B and D are correct, A is also correct in defining mitigation, and the question asks for all correct statements. Excluding a valid definition of mitigation makes this combination incomplete.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it brings together the accurate definition of mitigation, the accurate definition of adaptation and a valid example of adaptation in the form of climate-resilient crops. It appropriately excludes C, which mislabels a typical mitigation measure as adaptation. By balancing conceptual clarity with relevant examples, this option best fits the question.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats all four statements A, B, C and D as correct. Since C misclassifies tree planting solely as adaptation, accepting it alongside the other statements blurs the important conceptual distinction between mitigation and adaptation. The presence of this incorrect statement invalidates the combination.

Kevalavyatireki inference obtains vyapti from observations that wherever the sadhya is absent, the hetu is also absent, without finding any positive instance of their co-presence. The relation is thus supported solely by negative concomitance. Nyaya treats this as a distinctive pattern of inferential support. Therefore the type of inference mentioned in the stem is kevalavyatireki.

Option A:
Option A, kevalanvayi, depends exclusively on positive instances and does not appeal to joint absences, making it structurally different from what is described.

Option B:
Option B, anvayavyatireki, integrates both affirmative and negative cases and is more inclusive than the purely negative evidence scenario here.

Option C:
Option C, purvavat, classifies inference by its cause-to-effect temporal direction rather than by the pattern of positive or negative instances used to establish vyapti.

Option D:
Option D is correct because kevalavyatireki literally means "only by negative concomitance" and is defined in Nyaya precisely in terms of reliance on shared absences for establishing the universal relation.

Statements A, B, C, D and E correctly describe core equivalence laws of propositional logic, while F is false. Double negation, De Morgan’s laws, the implication law and distributivity are all standard tools for simplifying or transforming statements. In reasoning questions, these equivalences can be applied implicitly even if symbolic notation is not shown. F is wrong because such simplifications are central to many exam solutions. Thus A, B, C, D and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete since it omits E, leaving out the distributive law, which is also a recognised equivalence. While A, B, C and D are all true, the absence of E means one important law is missing. Therefore this option does not capture the full set of correct statements.

Option B:
Option B is wrong because it includes F, which asserts that these equivalences are never used in UGC NET reasoning. In practice, many items rely on them, even if test-takers apply them informally. Including F therefore makes the overall combination incorrect.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since it omits A and retains only B, C, D and E. Without A, the crucial principle of double negation is missing, which is a basic equivalence often taught alongside the others. This omission prevents the option from representing all true statements.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it brings together all five valid equivalences and excludes the single false statement. It accurately reflects how formal logic simplifies complex expressions and how those ideas underlie exam questions. Hence it is the right answer.

Debriefing is an ethical step taken after participants have completed their involvement in a study, especially when deception or incomplete disclosure was used. During debriefing, researchers explain the true purpose of the research, clarify any misleading information and answer participants’ questions. This helps restore trust and ensures that participants leave without misconceptions or distress. Because the stem refers to providing a full explanation of the true purpose after participation, debriefing is the correct term.

Option A:
Anonymity concerns whether researchers can link responses to individual identities and is not about post-study explanations. While both relate to ethics, anonymity does not describe the process mentioned in the question.

Option B:
Confidentiality focuses on protecting participants’ personal information from being disclosed to others, not on giving explanations after the study. Therefore, confidentiality is not the appropriate completion here.

Option C:
Briefing typically refers to giving initial instructions or information before a study or task, which is the opposite temporal sequence to what the stem describes. Since the question is about explanations given after participation, briefing is not correct.

Option D:
Debriefing allows participants to understand why certain procedures were used, including any necessary deception, and offers them an opportunity to withdraw their data if they feel uncomfortable. This process upholds respect for persons and aligns exactly with the description in the stem.

Curriculum decolonisation involves challenging colonial-era biases in knowledge systems and incorporating perspectives, texts and methodologies from indigenous and marginalised communities. The stem describes re-examining Eurocentric syllabi and including indigenous knowledge, which is at the heart of decolonisation debates. Therefore, “decolonisation” correctly fills the blank, making Option B the appropriate answer.

Option A:
Depoliticisation would mean removing political content or analysis, whereas decolonisation debates are explicitly critical and political in nature. Therefore, Option A is incorrect.

Option B:
Option B is correct because the described rebalancing of knowledge systems and inclusion of indigenous perspectives is precisely what “curriculum decolonisation” refers to.

Option C:
Militarisation refers to increased influence of military values/structures and is unrelated to syllabus content debates about colonial legacies. Hence, Option C is incorrect.

Option D:
Mechanisation concerns technology and machines and does not address whose knowledge is valued or how colonial power shaped curricula. The stem is about epistemic justice and representation, not automation. Therefore, Option D is incorrect.

Cloud storage providers allocate space on networked servers and present it to users as if it were a drive accessible from many devices. Data stored there can be synchronised, shared and backed up automatically. This model reduces dependence on specific physical devices and supports collaboration. Therefore the services mentioned are instances of cloud storage.

Option A:
Option A, optical media, includes CDs and DVDs that are physical discs and require local drives; they are not internet-based services.

Option B:
Option B, removable storage, refers to USB drives or external disks that are attached directly to computers and do not inherently offer remote, multi-device access.

Option C:
Option C is correct because cloud storage explicitly denotes online file-hosting services where infrastructure is managed by third-party providers and users connect over the internet. The examples given in the stem are among the most widely used cloud storage platforms.

Option D:
Option D, local area storage, is not a standard term in cloud computing and suggests on-premises storage within a network rather than externally hosted services.

Drstanta is the illustrative example employed to make the vyapti between hetu and sadhya clear to the listener. By pointing to a well-known case where the same relation holds, such as smoke and fire in a kitchen, the speaker strengthens confidence in the general rule. This example plays a pedagogical role in the five-membered inference. Therefore the familiar instance described in the stem is called drstanta.

Option A:
Option A, vyapti, is the universal concomitance itself, not the particular instance chosen to display it. The drstanta is used to convey vyapti but is conceptually distinct from it.

Option B:
Option B, sadhya, is the probandum to be established in the paksha, such as "fiery", and is not an example case at all.

Option C:
Option C is correct because drstanta literally means "seen instance" and is explicitly defined in Nyaya as the member of inference that supplies a concrete illustration of the general rule.

Option D:
Option D, hetvabhasa, denotes a fallacious reason and has no role in providing supportive examples; rather, it signals a defect in reasoning.

Urban heat islands occur when built-up surfaces absorb and re-radiate more heat than vegetated rural landscapes. Concrete, asphalt and buildings store heat, while reduced vegetation lowers cooling from evapotranspiration. Waste heat from vehicles, air-conditioners and industry further raises temperatures. As a result, cities are often several degrees warmer than nearby rural areas, especially at night, which matches the description in option B.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect since it reverses the observed pattern; rural areas are generally cooler, not warmer, at night. Their vegetation and open spaces allow more rapid cooling.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it identifies both the temperature difference and the main causes. It links warmer cities to material properties and anthropogenic heat, which is how climatologists define urban heat islands.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because tall buildings can also trap heat and reduce wind flow. Shade helps in the daytime, but overall urban form still tends to raise average temperatures.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as rainfall patterns are influenced by many factors. Population density alone does not explain the heat island effect, which is specifically about temperature.

Mass communication involves institutional sources sending messages through technological channels to large,heterogeneous and dispersed audiences. A news channel broadcasting election results fits all these features. The audience includes many unknown viewers across the country. Hence mass communication is the correct term.

Option A:
Interpersonal communication involves few participants and usually face to face contact,which is absent here.

Option B:
Mass communication is one-to-many,mediated through TV/technology,and reaches a large dispersed audience,so election-result broadcasting fits it.

Option C:
Group communication refers to small coordinated discussions,rather than national broadcasts.

Option D:
Organisational communication concerns internal interactions within an institution,not public media messages.

Statements A, B, C and E are accepted qualities of a good test. A is true because validity concerns measuring intended outcomes. B is true as reliability indicates consistent results, C is true since objectivity aims to reduce scorer bias, and E is true because a practical test is manageable in time and resources. D is false because ambiguity reduces clarity and fairness, and F is false since good tests use a variety of item types; therefore A, B, C and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A includes A, B and C but omits E, ignoring the practical constraints that influence testing in real classrooms. As practicability is also a key characteristic, A, B and C only is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B brings in E but drops B, leaving out the crucial idea of score consistency across administrations. Because reliability is fundamental, A, C and E only cannot be accepted.

Option C:
Option C includes B, C and E but omits A, failing to state that a test must measure what it claims to measure. Without validity, B, C and E only does not cover the full set of essential characteristics.

Option D:
Option D collects A, B, C and E, uniting validity, reliability, objectivity and practicability while excluding D and F, which promote confusing questions or a single item format. This makes A, B, C and E only the correct answer.

NPST is intended to state clearly what teachers should know and be able to do at different career stages and to link these expectations with recruitment, appraisal, promotion and professional development.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because NEP 2020 specifically proposes that NPST should inform recruitment and promotion; ignoring them would defeat their purpose.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it shows NPST shaping competency expectations across career stages and guiding hiring, appraisal and continuous professional development.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because NPST focuses on professional competencies and practice, not on superficial matters like prescribing dress codes.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since students’ exam marks are determined by assessment processes and criteria, not by professional standards documents.

NEP 2020 envisions teaching as a true profession with a clear career structure. Movement across stages is linked to NPST, appraisals and CPD records. This encourages continuous improvement and recognises high performance and leadership capacities.

Option A:
This option aligns with the idea of merit- and competency-based progression.

Option B:
Solely age-based seniority ignores quality and effort and is discouraged.

Option C:
Refusing promotions entirely would demotivate teachers and is not suggested.

Option D:
Using only exam ranks as criteria narrows focus and distorts teaching priorities.

Interpersonal communication occurs when two or a few individuals interact directly,sharing thoughts and feelings. A one to one counselling session is a classic example of dyadic interpersonal communication. The participants can adjust their messages based on immediate feedback.

Option A:
Mass communication involves mediated messages sent to large,anonymous audiences and does not describe private counselling.

Option B:
Group communication refers to interactions in small groups rather than one to one settings.

Option C:
Interpersonal communication involves direct one to one exchange with immediate feedback,so counselling fits this option.

Option D:
Intrapersonal communication takes place within an individual's own mind,not between two people.

In learner-centred education, the teacher’s role shifts from being a sole source of information to a facilitator of learning. A facilitator designs tasks, provides resources and offers guidance while encouraging students to explore and construct knowledge independently. This role supports discovery learning and fosters critical thinking and autonomy. Therefore, a teacher who mainly guides students to discover knowledge is rightly called a facilitator.

Option A:
A dictator uses authority to impose ideas and decisions without considering students’ perspectives, which discourages exploration and questioning. Such a role is incompatible with guiding learners to discover knowledge on their own. As a result, dictator cannot be the correct term here.

Option B:
A facilitator helps learners take responsibility for their own learning, offering support and scaffolding when needed but not dominating the process. The teacher creates an environment where questions, investigation and collaboration are valued. Since the stem stresses guiding rather than merely telling, facilitator is the most appropriate description.

Option C:
An examiner’s primary function is to assess learners’ performance through tests or other instruments. While teachers do conduct evaluations, their everyday teaching role is broader and cannot be reduced to examination alone. Thus, examiner does not reflect the guiding, discovery-oriented emphasis of the question.

Option D:
A controller focuses on maintaining tight discipline and control over every classroom action. In such a role, students have limited freedom to explore or make decisions. This is contrary to the idea of encouraging self-discovery, so controller is not a suitable answer.