UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Sāmānyatodṛṣṭa anumāna involves inference based on general patterns of co occurrence rather than a clear temporal order of cause and effect. Movement of leaves is regularly associated with the presence of air or wind, even though air itself may not be directly perceived. From this generally observed relation, one infers air from leaf movement. Nyāya uses such examples to illustrate inference to entities known only through their effects.

Option A:
Option A, pūrvavat, describes inference from present cause to future effect, as when dark clouds lead us to expect rain.

Option B:
Option B, śeṣavat, is often used for inferring an unperceived cause from a known effect in a more definite causal chain, as in inferring fire from smoke.

Option C:
Option C correctly classifies the case as sāmānyatodṛṣṭa, where broad, repeated association lets us infer something unseen like air from an observable sign.

Option D:
Option D, kevalānvayi, refers to inference where only positive instances exist and no genuine negative instances are available, which is not the key feature of this example.

Green computing emphasises designing, using and disposing of computer systems in ways that minimise environmental impact. This includes energy efficient hardware, power management features and responsible recycling of electronic waste. Organisations adopt green computing to reduce costs, comply with regulations and support sustainability goals. Thus, the computing approach described is green computing.

Option A:
Option A, ubiquitous, computing focuses on embedding computation into everyday objects and environments and does not inherently address environmental responsibility.

Option B:
Option B is correct because the term green computing is widely used to denote eco friendly practices in the ICT domain, directly matching the concern for responsible and efficient use.

Option C:
Option C, mobile, computing relates to computing on portable devices and is defined by mobility rather than environmental considerations.

Option D:
Option D, embedded, computing deals with specialised processors inside appliances and machines, which may or may not be designed with green principles in mind.

This sequence follows the rule aₙ = n³+2n for n starting from 1. For n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 we obtain 1³+2 = 3, 2³+4 = 12, 3³+6 = 33, 4³+8 = 72 and 5³+10 = 135, matching the given terms. For n = 6 the formula gives 6³+12 = 216+12 = 228. Therefore 228 is the only value that continues the same cubic relationship without any adjustment.

Option A:
Option A, 218, does not equal n³+2n for n = 6 and would require subtracting 10 from the value given by the formula. This distortion breaks the clear pattern connecting each term to its index. Thus 218 cannot be regarded as the correct next term.

Option B:
Option B, 222, is still below the correct cubic value of 228 and does not satisfy the rule aₙ = n³+2n. It represents an arbitrary modification rather than a logical extension of the pattern. For this reason it is not the right answer.

Option C:
Option C, 228, is precisely the value obtained from the generating rule when n = 6. It respects the same algebraic structure used for all earlier terms and keeps the series internally consistent. Hence 228 is the correct continuation.

Option D:
Option D, 236, exceeds the formula’s prediction and has no basis in the expression n³+2n for the next index. Adopting 236 would undermine the transparent cubic pattern, so it is not a valid option.

Statements A, B, C and E correctly describe the truth-table method for testing validity, while D is false. Validity depends on what happens in all rows where premises are true: if the conclusion is always true in those rows, the argument form is valid; if there is even one row with true premises and a false conclusion, the form is invalid. We therefore must systematically inspect all such rows, not just one arbitrarily chosen row. In UGC NET, many candidates reason through small tables mentally, illustrating E.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it omits E, not acknowledging that mental truth-table reasoning is often used in the exam. A, B, C only therefore does not fully incorporate the exam-oriented aspect of the question.

Option B:
Option B is wrong because it leaves out C, neglecting the explicit description of the counterexample row that makes a form invalid. A, B, E only thus fails to give the full condition for invalidity.

Option C:
Option C is correct since it combines the method for finding rows with true premises, the criteria for validity and invalidity, and the exam practice of mental truth tables while excluding D. It reflects standard teaching and UGC NET expectations.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it omits A and claims that inspecting only one arbitrary row is sufficient, which contradicts the requirement to check all rows where premises are true. B, C, E only therefore cannot be correct.

Each term is a block of four consecutive letters written in reverse order, and the starting letter moves forward by four positions each time. The starting letters D, H, L and P have positions 4, 8, 12 and 16, all increasing by 4. The next starting letter is position 20, which is T, and writing the four letter block from T in reverse gives TSRQ. This preserves both the plus four progression and the internal reverse arrangement.

Option A:
Option A, RQPO, rearranges letters including P and O but does not start with the correct letter T. It also breaks the strict descending order that characterises each block. Since it fails to follow the formula for the starting position and the internal structure, RQPO is not consistent with the pattern.

Option B:
Option B, SRQP, begins with S instead of T, which is only three positions ahead of P, not four. This changes the size of the jump in starting letters and disrupts the regularity of the sequence. Additionally, the letter order within the block does not correspond to a straightforward reverse of four consecutive letters starting at T.

Option C:
Option C, QPON, reverses the internal order of letters found around P but again starts with Q, not T, and does not reflect the plus four movement. It also returns to letters that are two positions behind P, which contradicts the forward movement of starting positions. Because it fails on both structural and positional grounds, QPON is not the correct continuation.

Option D:
Option D is correct because T is four positions after P and TSRQ lists T, S, R and Q as consecutive letters in descending order. It exactly mirrors the format of earlier blocks, which all reverse a run of four consecutive letters. This consistent adherence to both the starting letter progression and the reverse order makes TSRQ the valid next term.

The phrase used in NEP 2020 is “light but tight,” meaning that regulation should be limited in quantity but strict in enforcement. “Light” refers to reducing unnecessary rules and intrusive control, while still maintaining strong oversight on core quality aspects. Hence, “light” is the correct completion.

Option A:
Option A is correct because the policy explicitly calls for fewer but clearer regulations, trusting institutions in day-to-day matters while keeping oversight tight on academic standards and integrity.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since “heavy” would indicate many rules and detailed micromanagement, which the policy seeks to move away from.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because “weak” regulation would imply lax enforcement, contradicting the “tight” part of the phrase that stresses strong compliance and accountability.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as “rigid” suggests inflexible and possibly excessive regulation, again at odds with the idea of keeping the framework light in terms of the number of regulations.

In an argument, the conclusion is the main claim that the author wants the reader to accept on the basis of supporting reasons. Here, the factual observation about students who attend regularly and score high functions as the evidence. From this observation, the writer infers a general statement about the role of regular attendance in academic success. That generalised statement is what the premises are intended to support, so it is the conclusion.

Option A:
Option A presents the general claim that is being supported by the preceding observation, not the observation itself. It captures the “therefore” part of the reasoning and summarises the main point the argument is trying to establish.

Option B:
Option B reports the empirical basis of the argument and therefore functions as a premise, not the final point to be proved.

Option C:
Option C adds the stronger claim that success always requires attendance, which goes beyond the stated conclusion and is not actually asserted.

Option D:
Option D introduces a claim about marks being the only sign of success, which is not mentioned in the argument and cannot be its conclusion.

Statements A, B and C correctly describe the three levels of teaching: memory level stressing recall, understanding level emphasising meaningful learning and application, and reflective level involving problem-solving and critical thinking. Statement E is also correct because moving from memory to reflective level indicates progression from simple recall to complex, higher-order cognitive processes. Statement D is false because the learner has an increasingly active role at understanding and reflective levels. Therefore A, B, C and E only is the correct combination of statements.

Option A:
Option A includes A, B and C, all of which are true, but omits E, which correctly characterises the shift to higher-order thinking. Excluding a true statement makes the combination incomplete and therefore not acceptable.

Option B:
Option B groups B, C and E and leaves out A, even though memory level teaching and its focus on recall are an important part of the overall framework. Without A, the set does not fully represent all three levels, so this option is not correct.

Option C:
Option C contains A, B, C and E, each accurately reflecting a feature of the levels of teaching and their cognitive demands. It excludes D, which incorrectly portrays the learner as always passive. Because it includes all and only the true statements, this option is correct.

Option D:
Option D brings together A, C and E but omits B, so the description of understanding level teaching is missing. This results in a partial and therefore inadequate account of the levels of teaching.

Option E includes A, B, D and E and accepts D as if it were true, wrongly claiming that learners are completely passive at all levels. The presence of this false statement invalidates the option.

NEP 2020 expects school complexes to function as academic hubs that coordinate joint CPD, peer learning and resource sharing among teachers from different schools.

Option A:
This option is incorrect because limiting complexes to infrastructure sharing misses their intended academic and professional-development role.

Option B:
This option is correct; it matches NEP’s idea of complexes organising workshops, collaborative planning and exchanges of good practice.

Option C:
This option is wrong because handling only admissions is a narrow administrative task and not the main function of complexes.

Option D:
This option is incorrect since using complexes solely as exam centres ignores their continuous improvement responsibilities.

Statements A, B, C and F correctly describe vyāpti in Indian logic, while D and E are false. Vyāpti captures the necessary connection between hetu and sādhya discovered through repeated observation and the ruling out of counterinstances. Nyaya treats this relation as the essential ground of any valid inference, and the smoke–fire example is frequently used in teaching and exams. D is wrong because a single coincidence does not establish invariable concomitance, and E is wrong because Nyaya does not regard vyāpti as purely a priori; empirical observation and reasoning are both involved.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete since it omits F, leaving out the specific exam-oriented reference to the smoke–fire example that often illustrates vyāpti. While A, B and C are true, they do not fully reflect how the concept is used pedagogically. Therefore A, B and C only is not entirely adequate.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes D, which claims that one accidental co-occurrence is enough to secure vyāpti, contradicting the insistence on repeated, exceptionless observation. Including D invalidates the combination. Hence A, B, C and D only cannot be accepted.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it gathers the core definitional and methodological points along with the common example used in UGC NET materials, while excluding D and E, both of which misrepresent the nature of vyāpti. Thus A, B, C and F only is the right answer.

Option D:
Option D is wrong as it omits A and includes only B, C and F, leaving out the very definition of vyāpti as invariable concomitance. Without A, the candidate would not know what relation is being discussed. Therefore B, C and F only cannot be the correct choice.

The series lists English words for natural numbers in increasing order: ONE (1), TWO (2), THREE (3) and FOUR (4). The next number in this sequence is FIVE (5). Therefore the word FIVE is the only term that preserves the numeric progression described in word form.

Option A:
Option A, SIX, represents the number 6, which would be two steps ahead of FOUR if FIVE is skipped. The series shows no evidence of skipping intermediate numbers. As the pattern is strictly consecutive, SIX cannot be the immediate next term.

Option B:
Option B, ONE, would restart the sequence from the beginning. There is no cyclical structure indicated; the list moves forward rather than looping. Repeating ONE therefore breaks the clear numeric ordering.

Option C:
Option C, SEVEN, represents 7 and skips both FIVE and SIX. This contradicts the strictly increasing by 1 pattern in the given sequence. Hence SEVEN cannot logically follow FOUR.

Option D:
Option D is correct because FIVE is the next integer after FOUR in the natural counting order. It continues the sequence smoothly without omissions or repetitions. As the series is clearly numerical in nature, FIVE must be the next term.

The project method requires students to select a meaningful task,plan its steps,carry it out and evaluate the results,often relating it to real-life situations. This approach integrates knowledge and skills from multiple areas and promotes responsibility and cooperation. The stem clearly mentions planning,execution and evaluation of a real-life task,which describes the project method.

Option A:
Drill focuses on repetitive practice of specific skills or facts and does not involve extended planning and evaluation of a real-life task.

Option B:
Lecture method is teacher-centred and verbal,with learners mainly listening,rather than planning and executing a task themselves.

Option C:
Questioning method emphasises asking and answering questions to stimulate thinking,but it is not,by itself,a long-term real-life task approach.

Option D:
Project work embodies the principle of learning by doing,which the stem highlights,making option D correct.

Statements A, B, C and E are accepted functions of a good literature review, whereas D is false. A literature review maps what is already known, identifies gaps, helps refine questions or hypotheses and prevents unnecessary duplication. It also situates the current work within relevant theories and conceptual frameworks. Statement D is wrong because empirical studies also require literature reviews to connect them with existing evidence.

Option A:
Option A includes A, B and C but omits E, ignoring the crucial role of the literature review in anchoring the study in theoretical perspectives. Because it leaves out one true statement, the combination is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it assembles all the true statements and excludes D, which undervalues the importance of literature review in empirical work. It therefore provides a comprehensive view of the purposes of reviewing earlier research.

Option C:
Option C adds D, which wrongly suggests that literature review is optional for empirical studies, and omits C, which correctly highlights avoiding duplication. This mixture of inclusion and omission makes the option unsound.

Option D:
Option D leaves out A, thereby failing to acknowledge gap identification as a central function of literature review. Even though B, C and E are correct, missing A prevents the option from being complete.

Option E includes D, the incorrect claim, and omits B, which recognises the refinement of questions and hypotheses. Because it both adds a false statement and omits a true one, this option cannot be accepted.

All four statements are correct and together describe the links between deforestation, climate change and REDD+. Deforestation is a major source of emissions and biodiversity loss, driven by land-use change and exploitation. REDD+ seeks to create incentives to reduce these emissions and promote conservation and sustainable management. Many REDD+ initiatives emphasise benefit-sharing with communities whose livelihoods depend on forests. Therefore, the combination A, B, C and D is the correct answer.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it includes only A and B and overlooks C and D. While it lists impacts and drivers, it omits the REDD+ mechanisms and community benefit-sharing aspects that are central to this topic.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since it lists A, B and C but leaves out D. Although it mentions REDD+ as a mechanism, it ignores the important social dimension of benefit-sharing with local and indigenous communities.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it groups B, C and D and omits A. Without acknowledging the core link between deforestation and greenhouse gas emissions, the description is incomplete.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it recognises that all four statements are accurate and complementary, covering environmental, economic and social aspects of REDD+. It is the only option that includes every true statement.

The three Rs principle stands for reduce,reuse and recycle,which together aim to minimise waste at source and promote resource efficiency. It encourages consumers and producers to generate less waste, use products multiple times and recover materials. Since the stem explicitly mentions these three verbs,the correct completion is the three Rs principle. It is a cornerstone of sustainable consumption and waste management.

Option A:
End of pipe approaches treat pollution only after it has been generated,for example through filters and scrubbers. While useful,they do not prioritise reducing waste at source as the three Rs do. Hence this option does not align with the proactive waste minimisation described in the stem.

Option B:
Polluter pays is an economic principle assigning the cost of pollution control to those who cause it. It does not specify how waste should be handled in terms of reduction, reuse or recycling,so it is not the best fit here.

Option C:
Three Rs directly encapsulates the idea of reducing resource use,extending product life and recovering materials. It provides a clear hierarchy in which reduction is preferred,followed by reuse and then recycling. This matches exactly the concept outlined in the question.

Option D:
Emission trading deals with the buying and selling of permits to emit pollutants,especially greenhouse gases. It is a market based instrument and not a behavioural principle of waste minimisation as stated in the stem.