UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Cyber bullying involves using ICT platforms such as social media, messaging apps or email to target individuals with harmful content on a repeated basis. It can seriously affect victims’ mental health and sense of safety. Educational institutions emphasise awareness and prevention of cyber bullying to promote safe digital environments. Therefore, the behaviour described is cyber bullying.

Option A:
Option A is correct because cyber bullying is the established term for repeated online harassment using digital channels.

Option B:
Option B, cyber security, refers to measures taken to protect systems and data, not to the abusive behaviour itself.

Option C:
Option C, data mining, is an analytical process of discovering patterns in data and is unrelated to harassment.

Option D:
Option D, encryption, safeguards confidentiality of information rather than causing harm to individuals.

The starting letters of the groups are B, E, H and K, which occupy positions 2, 5, 8 and 11 in the alphabet, increasing by 3 each time. The groups themselves are made of three consecutive letters in forward order. Continuing the same rule, the next starting letter is position 14, which is N, and the consecutive letters after N are O and P. Therefore NOP is the only group that fits both the plus three jump in the starting letter and the three letter consecutive structure.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it begins with N, exactly three positions after K, and continues with O and P to form a consecutive three letter block. It preserves the constant increase of three positions in the first letter across all terms. It also maintains the same internal structure where each group is made of adjacent letters in correct order. These two properties together make NOP the valid continuation.

Option B:
Option B, MNO, starts at M, which is only two positions after K, so it breaks the fixed jump of three positions for the starting letters. Although MNO is itself a set of three consecutive letters, it does not arise from the same position rule used earlier. Because it violates the numerical pattern in the first letter, it cannot be the correct next term.

Option C:
Option C, OPQ, begins at O, which is four positions after K and overshoots the required step. This makes the gap between KLM and OPQ larger than all previous jumps. Since the series shows a stable plus three increment, the excessive jump in the starting letter makes OPQ inconsistent with the pattern.

Option D:
Option D, LMN, uses L as the starting letter, but L was already part of the previous group KLM and does not follow the plus three progression from K. It would make the sequence repeat an internal letter instead of moving to the next scheduled starting point. Therefore LMN fails to continue the series logically.

Statements A, B and C express standard rules from traditional syllogistic logic. A is correct because a categorical syllogism uses three and only three terms, each appearing in specific roles. B is correct since failure to distribute the middle term at least once leads to the fallacy of undistributed middle. C is also true because with two negative premises there is no logical basis to relate the subject and predicate terms, so no conclusion follows. Statement D is false because valid syllogisms cannot have both premises negative and the conclusion negative simultaneously, so only A, B and C form the correct set.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it includes only A and B but omits C, which is an important rule prohibiting valid conclusions from two negative premises. Without C, the characterisation of valid and invalid syllogisms is not complete. This makes the option unsuitable for the correct answer.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it brings together all the true statements about term count, middle-term distribution and the restriction on negative premises. It also implicitly excludes the incorrect idea in D that a valid syllogism may have all three statements negative. This matches the logical rules examined in NET questions.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes D, which falsely allows a configuration with both negative premises and a negative conclusion, while omitting B. Losing the distribution condition on the middle term and accepting a wrong rule about negativity makes the option invalid.

Option D:
Option D is wrong because it pairs B with D, treating the clearly false D as if it were correct and leaving out A and C. The combination therefore mixes truth with error and fails to capture the overall structure of valid categorical syllogisms.

B, C and E are correct; A and D are false. Suitable actions must be feasible and address the problem; consequences matter; exam instructions may allow multiple acceptable actions. Drastic actions are not automatically suitable, and ignoring the statement is not recommended.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it includes A (false) about automatically accepting drastic actions.

Option B:
Option B is incomplete because it omits E (true about instruction-guided choice).

Option C:
Option C is correct because it includes all true statements (B, C, E) and excludes A and D (false).

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it includes A and D (both false).

Paralanguage refers to vocal characteristics that accompany spoken words,such as pitch,volume and rate. These features influence how listeners interpret emotions,attitudes and emphasis. The stem lists exactly these vocal variations. Therefore they belong to paralanguage.

Option A:
Paralanguage helps distinguish sarcasm,enthusiasm or boredom even when the same words are used. This aligns with the idea of changing the impact of a message.

Option B:
Proxemics concerns space and distance,not voice quality.

Option C:
Semantics is about the meaning of words,not how they are spoken.

Option D:
Haptics focuses on touch and is unrelated to vocal modulation.

Statements A, B, D and E correctly capture IQAC and NAAC roles. A is true since IQAC plans and coordinates internal quality initiatives. B is true as NAAC reports highlight strengths and areas for improvement. D is true because both mechanisms aim to embed continuous improvement and evidence-informed decisions. E is true since IQAC prepares internal reports such as AQAR. C is false because internal quality structures remain necessary after accreditation, and F is false because quality assurance involves faculty and students as key stakeholders.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it omits E, failing to mention IQAC’s documentation and reporting functions, which are integral to quality assurance.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes F, which wrongly claims that quality is only an administrative concern, contradicting participatory quality models.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes F and omits A, ignoring the central coordinating role of IQAC while accepting a narrow view of who is responsible for quality.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it selects the four true statements on coordination, NAAC feedback, improvement culture and reporting, and rejects C and F, which misrepresent the continuity and inclusiveness of quality work.

This option is correct because the probability of an event and its complement must sum to 1. If P(A) = p, then P(A') = 1 − p. This follows directly from the rule that A and A' are mutually exclusive and exhaustive. Therefore, the complement has probability 1 − p.

Option A:
If we use p as the probability of A', then P(A) + P(A') would be p + p = 2p, which equals 1 only when p = 1/2. This does not hold in general and contradicts probability axioms. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Option B:
The expression 1/p would usually exceed 1 for p less than 1 and is not bounded between 0 and 1. Probabilities cannot exceed 1, so this form cannot represent the complement probability.

Option C:
The expression p² is smaller than p for values between 0 and 1 and does not generally satisfy P(A) + P(A') = 1. It is just another function of p, not the complement. Thus, this option is not correct.

Option D:
The value 1 − p ensures that P(A) + P(A') equals 1, satisfying the basic complement rule. It also remains between 0 and 1 whenever p is between 0 and 1. Therefore, this formula correctly represents P(A').

The chi-square test is a non-parametric statistical procedure used mainly to analyse relationships between categorical variables organised in contingency tables. It compares observed frequencies in each cell with the frequencies expected if there were no association between the variables. A significant chi-square suggests that the distribution of one categorical variable depends on the categories of the other. Because the stem refers to examining the association between two variables in social science, the correct description is categorical variables.

Option A:
Interval variables have equal intervals between values and support arithmetic operations, typically analysed with parametric tests like t-tests or ANOVA when assumptions are met. While chi-square can sometimes be applied to grouped interval data, its primary use is with categorical variables, so interval is not the most accurate answer.

Option B:
Ratio variables possess all the properties of interval variables plus a true zero point, facilitating meaningful ratio statements. They are usually analysed using parametric tests or other methods that exploit their quantitative properties. The chi-square test, however, is best known for work with categories, making ratio an unsuitable choice.

Option C:
Categorical variables classify observations into distinct groups such as gender, type of institution or preference category. The chi-square test is designed to assess whether the distribution across categories differs significantly between groups, or whether two categorical variables are independent. This close alignment with the stem’s description confirms categorical as the correct completion.

Option D:
Continuous variables can take on any value within a range and are more naturally analysed with methods based on means and variances. While they can be converted into categories, chi-square is not primarily defined for continuous variables in their raw form. Hence, continuous is not the right answer here.

Statements A and B give correct definitions of union and intersection, D correctly states that the empty set is a subset of every set and E is true because many reasoning problems about groups naturally use set models and sometimes Venn diagrams. Statement C is false since the complement of A in U consists of elements of U that are not in A, not elements that are in both A and U. Therefore, the combination A, B, D and E only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E and so does not mention the common application of set theory to practical reasoning questions in exams. Without E, the conceptual link to aptitude problems is weakened.

Option B:
Option B is also incomplete as it leaves out A and therefore fails to give the basic description of union, which is central to understanding combined categories in reasoning questions.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it includes C, which misdescribes complement, and omits E, ignoring the modelling role of sets. Including a false statement invalidates the option.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it keeps all true statements while excluding C, the incorrect account of complement. It aligns with the formal set-theoretic framework used for UGC NET reasoning items.

The days of the week repeat every 7 days. We find the effective shift by computing 50 mod 7. Since 50 = 7 × 7 + 1, the remainder is 1, meaning the day moves forward by 1 from Wednesday. One day after Wednesday is Thursday, so 50 days from now it will be Thursday.

Option A:
Option A, Thursday, is exactly one day after Wednesday and corresponds to a remainder of 1 in the modulo-7 calculation, so it matches the correct reasoning.

Option B:
Option B, Saturday, is three days after Wednesday and would be correct only if the remainder were 3, not 1.

Option C:
Option C, Sunday, is four days after Wednesday and would require a remainder of 4, which does not arise from 50 ÷ 7.

Option D:
Option D, Monday, is five days after Wednesday, again inconsistent with the actual remainder of 1.

Statements A, B and C outline accepted criteria for evaluating online information, while statement D is clearly false. Evaluating authority, currency and cross-checking across sources helps determine reliability and accuracy. By contrast, spelling errors, sensational tone and missing contact details are warning signs, rather than guarantees, of trustworthiness. Thus, the combination containing A, B and C only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it selects only A and B and leaves out C. Although authority and currency are important, verification through multiple reliable sources is also a key evaluative practice. Excluding C results in an under-specified set of criteria.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it groups B and C only and omits A. While B and C are true, ignoring the authority of the author or organisation overlooks a central aspect of source evaluation. Therefore, this combination does not fully represent proper evaluation practices.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it includes all three true statements—A, B and C—and excludes D, which misinterprets poor presentation features as markers of reliability. It captures a balanced view of how ICT users should evaluate online information.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it assumes that all four statements are correct, thereby accepting D. Statement D reverses good practice by suggesting that unprofessional features enhance trustworthiness, so any option including it is invalid.

Statements A, B, C and E accurately describe smart classroom capabilities. Interactive boards, document cameras and clickers support presentation and interaction, while LMS or cloud integration delivers resources in real time. Statement D is false because connectivity is a key feature of many smart classrooms, and F is false since technology alone cannot ensure improved learning without thoughtful pedagogy. Therefore A, B, C and E only are correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E and hence overlooks the importance of accessing digital materials through online integration. A, B and C are true but do not fully capture smart classroom potential.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it combines interactive hardware, real-time feedback and digital resource access, matching common smart-classroom implementations. It rejects the false claims that Internet cannot be used or that pedagogy is unnecessary.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes F, which asserts that planning is not needed. This conflicts with instructional design principles, so the presence of F invalidates the set.

Option D:
Option D is incomplete because it leaves out B and does not mention document cameras as a smart classroom tool. Although A, C and E are correct, omitting B means not all true statements are included.

Action research is conducted by practitioners such as teachers or administrators to improve their own practice in a specific context. It involves planning an intervention, acting, observing the results and reflecting on them. The goal is both to solve an immediate problem and to learn from the process. Thus, practitioner-led problem solving in one’s own setting is best described as action research.

Option A:
Basic research aims to extend theoretical knowledge without an immediate focus on solving day-to-day practical problems. It is more concerned with general principles and laws. Therefore, it does not capture the local, improvement-oriented nature described in the stem.

Option B:
Action research is cyclical, involving repeated planning, acting, observing and reflecting in the practitioner’s own context. It directly links research to practice and produces context-specific solutions. This matches the description of research conducted to solve an immediate problem by the practitioner, making this option correct.

Option C:
Evaluation research focuses on judging the effectiveness or value of a programme or policy, often for decision-making by external stakeholders. Although it may suggest improvements, it is not necessarily conducted by practitioners about their own practice. So this term does not fully match the stem.

Option D:
Ex post facto research investigates relationships after the events have occurred without manipulating the independent variable. It is usually analytical and retrospective rather than an ongoing cycle of problem solving by practitioners. Hence, it is not the right term here.

Formative assessment focuses on monitoring learning during the course and helping students improve before final evaluation. ICT tools like LMS platforms make it easy to schedule periodic quizzes, collect submissions and give quick feedback. Analytics dashboards can show which topics are problematic, allowing targeted remedial teaching. Thus, the example of regular online assessments with feedback aligns closely with the formative purpose.

Option A:
A single final exam is a summative assessment and does not provide ongoing guidance during the learning process. The long delay in declaring results further reduces its usefulness as feedback.

Option B:
Uploading only slides gives access to content but does not check understanding or provide performance-related feedback. Without tasks and responses, assessment is missing.

Option C:
This option correctly combines frequent assessment opportunities with responsive feedback. Students can track their own progress, and teachers can adjust teaching strategies based on LMS data.

Option D:
Administrative circulars may inform students about dates or rules but are not part of the assessment process. They do not measure or support learning outcomes directly.

Statements A, B and C reflect recommended maintenance practices for ICT hardware, while D is unsafe. Good ventilation and dust control prolong equipment life, surge protection reduces electrical damage and cleaning peripherals supports usability and health. Attempting repairs without knowledge or precautions can cause harm to both the user and the equipment, so D must be excluded. Hence, the combination A, B and C only is correct.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it aggregates the three true maintenance guidelines and omits D, which encourages risky behaviour. It aligns with basic safety instructions given in ICT laboratories and computer centres.

Option B:
Option B is incomplete because it includes only A and B and leaves out C. Maintaining cleanliness of keyboards and mice is also part of responsible hardware care, so excluding C makes the description partial.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it groups B, C and D and accepts D. Although B and C are correct, adding D suggests that untrained users can safely repair hardware, which contradicts standard safety guidance.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats all four statements as correct and hence legitimises D. Since D promotes unsafe practices, this combination cannot be accepted.