UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Statements A, B, C and E are correct, describing planning, social, ecological and analytical dimensions of urban resilience. Integrating risk into planning, using social protection, restoring ecosystems and conducting multi-hazard assessments all strengthen cities’ ability to cope with climate impacts. D is wrong because institutions and communities are central to resilience, and F is wrong as community participation improves relevance and ownership of plans. Therefore, A, B, C and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it omits E, thereby ignoring the importance of multi-hazard assessments in understanding combined risks. Without E, the analytical basis of resilience planning is not fully captured.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect as it includes only B, C and E and leaves out A, which is fundamental in stating that planning and infrastructure must integrate climate risk. Excluding A weakens the description of what makes a city climate-resilient.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect since it accepts F and omits B. Accepting F denies the value of community participation, while dropping B neglects the role of social protection for vulnerable groups.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it combines all the true statements and excludes D and F, which narrow resilience to physical assets and dismiss participation. It reflects the multi-dimensional approach to urban climate resilience emphasised in this unit.

The series follows an alternating pattern of multiplying by 2 and then subtracting 2. Starting from 5, we get 5 × 2 = 10, then 10 − 2 = 8, then 8 × 2 = 16 and then 16 − 2 = 14. Continuing this pattern, the next step after 14 should be to multiply by 2, giving 14 × 2 = 28. This preserves the established alternation of operations.

Option A:
Option A, 18, could arise from adding 4 to 14, but there is no consistent rule of adding 4 in the earlier part of the series. It introduces a new pattern not supported by previous terms.

Option B:
Option B, 20, might seem plausible as adding 6 to 14, yet such an operation is not part of the alternating multiply by 2 and subtract 2 rule evident in the earlier sequence.

Option C:
Option C, 24, equals 16 + 8 or similar combinations but does not correspond to the prescribed alternation of operations applied directly to the preceding term.

Option D:
Option D directly applies the observed pattern, maintaining the multiply by 2 step after a subtract step. It ensures that the structure of alternating operations continues without disruption, making 28 the correct next term.

Statement C is the only wrong statement because symmetric-key encryption requires the same secret key at both ends, not different keys. A rightly states that encryption transforms plaintext into ciphertext using an algorithm and key, B is correct about protecting confidentiality in transit, and D reflects the use of encryption in secure web protocols such as those used for online payments. Therefore the combination that selects only C as wrong is the correct answer.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it treats both B and C as wrong. B accurately describes the role of encryption in protecting confidentiality during transmission, so grouping it with the false statement C misidentifies a true property as wrong. This option therefore overstates the set of wrong statements.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it isolates C, which mischaracterises symmetric-key encryption as using different keys. By recognising that A, B and D are standard descriptions of encryption and that only C is false, this option precisely matches the requirement to select the wrong statement(s).

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it considers A and C together as wrong. A is a fundamental definition of encryption, so including it among wrong statements contradicts basic ICT knowledge. Mixing one false statement with one true statement makes this combination invalid.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats C and D as wrong even though D correctly notes that secure web protocols rely on encryption. Since only C is wrong, adding D expands the set of wrong statements beyond what the question requires.

Statements A, B, C and D correctly describe the four standard categorical forms, while E is false. A-propositions are indeed “All S are P”, E-propositions “No S are P”, I-propositions “Some S are P” and O-propositions “Some S are not P”. I-propositions are particular, not universal, so they do not express universal affirmation. Therefore the set of all and only true statements is A, B, C, D only.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes exactly those four statements that match the standard AEIO scheme and excludes E, which wrongly labels an I-proposition as universal. This option fully represents textbook terminology used in UGC NET preparation.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since it omits D, leaving out the correct form of the O-proposition, and so A, B, C only does not list all true statements. It is therefore incomplete with respect to the question stem.

Option C:
Option C is wrong because it drops C, the correct form of the I-proposition, and thus A, B, D only fails to include all valid categorical types. It also still excludes nothing false beyond E, so it does not capture the full set of accurate statements.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as it includes E along with B, C and D, thereby treating the false statement about I-propositions as if it were true. B, C, D, E only therefore mixes correct and incorrect information and cannot be accepted.

The pledge announced around COP28 calls for tripling global renewable energy capacity by 2030 compared to 2022 levels. It also aims to double the global average annual rate of energy-efficiency improvements. These twin goals are meant to accelerate decarbonisation of the power and end-use sectors while still supporting economic growth. They complement the broader Global Stocktake signals on transitioning away from fossil fuels.

Option A:
This option is correct because it states both parts of the pledge: a threefold increase in renewables and a doubling of efficiency gains. Together, they summarise the core quantitative ambition.

Option B:
This option is incorrect as it proposes reducing renewables and increasing fossil fuel subsidies, which runs counter to the spirit of the pledge.

Option C:
Tripling coal plants and weakening efficiency would increase emissions, not reduce them, so it contradicts the COP28 narrative.

Option D:
Focusing only on nuclear and ignoring renewables and efficiency does not match the text of the pledge. Nuclear may play a role, but it is not the sole focus.

Formative evaluation is used during the teaching learning process to gather information about students’ progress and the effectiveness of instruction. Its primary purpose is to provide feedback that can be used to modify teaching strategies and learning activities in real time. It is not usually used for certification or final grading. Therefore,the type of evaluation described in the stem is formative evaluation.

Option A:
Placement evaluation is done at the beginning of a course to decide the appropriate level or group for learners,and not primarily to improve ongoing instruction.

Option B:
Formative evaluation helps teachers identify misconceptions early and allows students to see where they need to improve before final assessments. Because the stem emphasises using evaluation to improve ongoing activities,formative is the correct choice.

Option C:
Summative evaluation occurs at the end of a unit or course and is mainly used for grading,categorisation or certification,rather than for continuous improvement during instruction.

Option D:
Diagnostic evaluation focuses on identifying specific learning difficulties and their causes,usually with more detailed tools; although it can inform improvement,its main purpose is specialised diagnosis,not continuous classroom feedback alone.

The 8-bit pattern 11111111₂ can be grouped into two nibbles: 1111₂ and 1111₂. Each nibble corresponds to the hex digit F (decimal 15). Combining them gives FF₁₆. Therefore, 11111111₂ maps to FF₁₆.

Option A:
Option A correctly uses nibble-to-hex mapping: 1111₂ = F, so 11111111₂ = FF₁₆.

Option B:
Option B, FE₁₆, would correspond to 11111110₂ and thus to decimal 254, one less than the maximum.

Option C:
Option C, F0₁₆, corresponds to 11110000₂, which is decimal 240 and not the full 8-bit maximum.

Option D:
Option D, 0F₁₆, corresponds to 00001111₂, a value much smaller than 11111111₂.

In this question statements A, B, D and E reflect core features of research design, while statement C is incorrect. Statement A is true because a research design indeed acts as a blueprint guiding data collection, measurement and analysis. Statement B is correct since a well-planned design seeks to minimise bias and enhance the reliability of data, and statement D properly characterises descriptive designs as portraying characteristics of populations or phenomena. Statement E is also true as causal-comparative research explores cause–effect relationships without direct manipulation of independent variables, whereas statement C is false because even exploratory studies require at least a tentative design or plan.

Option A:
Option A includes A, B and E but leaves out D. Although A, B and E are correct, D is also a true statement about descriptive research designs. By omitting D, this combination does not include all the correct statements and so cannot be accepted as the right answer.

Option B:
Option B selects B, D and E but omits A. While B, D and E are accurate, excluding A means the crucial general idea of research design as a blueprint for the entire study is missing. A complete set of correct statements must include A as well, so this option is incomplete.

Option C:
Option C correctly groups A, B, D and E, all of which present a coherent understanding of research design and related types of studies. It omits statement C, which wrongly suggests that exploratory studies do not need any design. Since this option contains all and only the true statements, it is the correct answer.

Option D:
Option D adds statement C to the otherwise correct combination of A, D and E. Because C is false, claiming that exploratory studies never require a design, its inclusion makes the entire combination incorrect. A valid option cannot mix misleading statements with true ones, so this choice is not acceptable.

HTTP defines the rules for communication between web browsers and web servers for requesting and delivering hypertext documents. The acronym officially expands to Hypertext Transfer Protocol, indicating its role in transferring hypertext resources. It is fundamental to web based ICT applications. Hence, the correct expansion is Hypertext Transfer Protocol.

Option A:
Option A is correct because standard networking references and exam syllabi identify HTTP as Hypertext Transfer Protocol. This phrase clearly mentions both hypertext and transfer, which are central to web interactions.

Option B:
Option B, Hyperlink Transmission Process, uses similar words but is not the recognised name and does not match official documentation.

Option C:
Option C, High Traffic Transport Protocol, suggests handling heavy traffic but has no standing as an internet standard acronym.

Option D:
Option D, Host Terminal Transfer Protocol, also sounds technical but is not the accepted expansion of HTTP in web technology.

Decomposing 156 yields 156 = 128 + 16 + 8 + 4, corresponding to bits in positions 7, 4, 3, and 2. Writing 1s in these positions and 0s elsewhere gives 10011100₂. Therefore, 10011100₂ is the binary form of 156.

Option A:
Option A accurately reflects the sum of powers of 2 equal to 156, using the positions for 2⁷, 2⁴, 2³, and 2². The resulting pattern converts back to 128 + 16 + 8 + 4, which is 156.

Option B:
Option B, 10011010₂, equals 128 + 16 + 8 + 2 = 154, which is slightly less than 156 and thus not correct.

Option C:
Option C, 10010110₂, represents 128 + 16 + 4 + 2 = 150, which is further from 156.

Option D:
Option D, 10011110₂, equals 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 = 158, overshooting the required value.

Source credibility refers to the degree to which an audience perceives a communicator as expert and trustworthy. Research qualifications and experience directly contribute to perceived expertise. When students are persuaded for this reason,they are responding to credibility.

Option A:
Credible sources are more likely to change attitudes because audiences feel confident in the accuracy of their messages. This matches the situation in the stem.

Option B:
Redundancy deals with repetition,not trust.

Option C:
Immediacy concerns psychological closeness rather than expertise.

Option D:
Noise is interference and does not explain why the speaker is convincing.

Statement C is the only wrong statement because email cannot guarantee that recipients read messages immediately upon sending. Statements A, B and D correctly describe email capabilities such as sending content and attachments, archiving messages and filtering spam. Message reading depends on recipient behaviour and notification settings, not the technology alone. Hence the option selecting only C as wrong is correct.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it accurately identifies C as the sole incorrect statement and affirms that A, B and D are valid features of email use. It highlights the difference between message delivery and actual reading behaviour.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it groups A and C as wrong, even though A is a standard feature of email. Treating A as wrong would contradict basic ICT knowledge about email functionality.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it labels C and D as wrong statements. D is true, since spam filters are widely used to manage unwanted messages. Combining a true statement with the false one makes this option invalid.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it includes B and C as wrong statements. While C is incorrect, B is true in noting that email can be stored, archived and searched over time. This mixture of true and false statements cannot be accepted.

Statements C and E are wrong because they conflict with basic principles of research formulation. Hypotheses should, in fact, be clear and testable rather than inherently vague, so C misrepresents their nature. E is wrong because reviewing related literature is essential for refining the problem, establishing significance and avoiding duplication. In contrast, A, B and D accurately describe how problems and objectives should be focused and logically aligned.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it treats only C as wrong and ignores the error in E. While C is indeed a wrong statement, E also misleads by suggesting that literature review is unnecessary after stating the problem. A correct answer must capture both faulty statements, not just one of them.

Option B:
Option B wrongly assumes that only E is wrong, overlooking the fact that C also contradicts the requirement that hypotheses be formulated in testable terms. By failing to recognise C as incorrect, this option provides an incomplete identification of wrong statements.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it groups C and E, the two statements that do not conform to sound research practice. It implicitly affirms that A, B and D correctly describe problem identification, objective formulation and logical consistency. This combination therefore reflects accepted guidelines for research design.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it adds B to the list of wrong statements, even though B correctly explains how objectives translate the problem into specific tasks. By misclassifying B as wrong, the option undermines a correct description of research objectives.

Statements A, B and C correctly describe intrapersonal, interpersonal and group communication, while D and E are incorrect. A is true because intrapersonal communication relates to internal dialogue and self-talk. B is true as interpersonal communication typically involves two or a few people in direct interaction. C is true since group communication focuses on coordinated interaction in small groups for shared purposes. D is false because mass communication is usually mediated and not primarily face-to-face, and E is false because organisational communication includes both formal and informal channels; hence A, B and C only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A includes A and B, which are accurate statements about intrapersonal and interpersonal communication, but leaves out C, which correctly defines group communication. Since group communication is also an important level, excluding C makes the combination incomplete. Therefore, A and B only cannot be treated as fully correct.

Option B:
Option B brings together A, B and C, covering the three basic levels of intra-, inter- and group communication in an accurate way. It also excludes D, which wrongly insists on face-to-face interaction in mass communication, and E, which restricts organisational communication to informal talk. Because it includes all and only the correct statements, A, B and C only is the right answer.

Option C:
Option C adds D to the otherwise correct set of A, B and C, but D is incorrect because mass communication is characteristically mediated and often lacks direct face-to-face interaction. Including one false statement alongside true ones makes A, B, C and D only an invalid combination. It overgeneralisess the nature of mass communication.

Option D:
Option D assembles B, C, D and E, but both D and E are wrong. D misrepresents mass communication as always face-to-face, and E ignores formal communication structures like memos and official meetings. As this combination includes two incorrect statements and omits A, it cannot be accepted as correct.

Statements A, B, D and E correctly reflect the logical flow of most research processes, while C is incorrect. The research journey typically begins with identifying and defining a problem and then formulating questions or hypotheses to address it. After collecting data, the researcher analyses and interprets them, and finally reports and disseminates the findings through theses, articles or presentations. Statement C is wrong because review of literature is normally undertaken before detailed data collection, not after.

Option A:
Option A includes A, B and D but excludes E. Although it correctly covers problem definition, hypothesis formulation and post-collection analysis, it omits the important final step of reporting and dissemination. Because it does not include all true statements, this combination is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it brings together all the true statements A, B, D and E and omits C, which reverses the usual ordering of literature review and data collection. It captures the full standard sequence from problem identification to reporting.

Option C:
Option C wrongly includes C along with true statements. Since C states that data collection must always precede literature review, it conflicts with accepted practice where literature review informs design and tools. Including C therefore makes this option incorrect.

Option D:
Option D lists B, D and E but omits A, ignoring the foundational step of clearly defining the research problem. Without acknowledging this early stage, the combination does not reflect a complete sequence, so it cannot be correct.

Option E includes A, B and E but leaves out D, failing to mention analysis and interpretation as a distinct stage between data collection and reporting. Skipping this key step means the option cannot represent the full set of correct statements.