UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

The figure of a syllogism is classified according to how the middle term is placed in the major and minor premises. Different arrangements of the middle term yield the first, second, third or fourth figure. This position affects which moods will produce valid arguments. Therefore the element that determines figure is the middle term.

Option A:
Option A, major term, appears in the major premise and the conclusion but its position does not by itself determine the figure. It is always the predicate of the conclusion regardless of figure.

Option B:
Option B, minor term, is the subject of the conclusion and occurs in the minor premise, yet its location relative to the middle does not provide the basis for the figure classification.

Option C:
Option C is correct because the middle term is the connecting link between major and minor terms, and its positions across the two premises define the structural pattern of the syllogism. Knowing where the middle term stands allows us to identify the figure precisely.

Option D:
Option D, distributed term, refers to whether a term refers to all members of its class in a proposition, which is important for testing validity but is not what figure classification is based on.

Encoding is the act of converting ideas or meanings into symbols suitable for transmission,such as words,images or diagrams. When teachers prepare lessons,they transform abstract concepts into teachable signs. The stem describes exactly this translation step,so it is encoding.

Option A:
Encoding involves careful selection of vocabulary,examples and visuals to represent content clearly,which matches the teacher's preparation activity.

Option B:
Decoding is the receiver's task of interpreting messages,not the teacher's planning process.

Option C:
Feedback is student response after instruction,not prior formulation.

Option D:
Channel refers to the medium carrying the encoded message,not the act of creating it.

101011110101₂ has 1s at positions 11, 9, 7, 6, 5, 4, 2, and 0. So value = 2¹¹ + 2⁹ + 2⁷ + 2⁶ + 2⁵ + 2⁴ + 2² + 2⁰ = 2048 + 512 + 128 + 64 + 32 + 16 + 4 + 1 = 2805.

Option A:
Option A is correct because summing the powers of 2 for all set bits gives exactly 2805.

Option B:
Option B (3019) would require additional higher-order bits or different set-bit positions.

Option C:
Option C (3442) corresponds to a different binary pattern with larger contributions than present here.

Option D:
Option D (3285) also corresponds to a different set of bit positions and does not match this binary numeral.

Statements A, B and D capture standard strategies for solving number series. A is correct because equal or regularly changing differences suggest arithmetic patterns. B is correct since regular ratios point towards geometric or multiplicative patterns. D is true because many advanced series have two or more interwoven subsequences. Statements C and E are false; series may change rules mid-way and writing differences or ratios is often very useful, so the correct combination is A, B and D only.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes precisely the three statements that describe genuine number series techniques while excluding C and E, which are misleading. It reflects how candidates are expected to analyse series using differences, ratios and recognition of alternating patterns.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it adds C, which wrongly insists on a single unchanging rule for every exam series. Including C makes the combination too restrictive and not true for many NET-style questions.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since it introduces E along with A, B and D. Statement E claims that writing differences or ratios is never useful, which contradicts common problem-solving practice, so this option cannot be fully correct.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it omits A and includes E. By leaving out the basic difference method and accepting the false claim that working out differences is useless, it fails to represent the correct set of statements.

In logic, implication is a relation where the truth of one statement guarantees the truth of another. If the antecedent is true, the consequent must also be true in a valid implication. This notion underlies conditional statements of the form “if p, then q”. Therefore the relation described in the stem is called implication.

Option A:
Option A, equivalence, is a stronger relation in which each statement implies the other. While equivalence includes two implications, the stem mentions only a one-way guarantee. Hence equivalence is not the most accurate answer.

Option B:
Option B, contradiction, holds when two statements cannot both be true and cannot both be false. This describes incompatibility rather than one statement ensuring another. Thus contradiction does not fit the stem.

Option C:
Option C, contrariety, involves statements that cannot both be true but may both be false. Again, this does not describe a guaranteeing relation. Therefore contrariety is not appropriate here.

Option D:
Option D correctly names implication as the relation in which the truth of one statement leads necessarily to the truth of another. This matches the one-directional assurance expressed in the question.

Positivist philosophy holds that authentic knowledge is based on observable, measurable facts and that scientific inquiry should discover general laws through systematic observation and experimentation. In research, this paradigm is linked to quantitative methods, hypothesis testing and the search for regularities that can be generalised across contexts. It assumes that reality is objective and can be studied without the researcher influencing the phenomenon. Therefore, the paradigm described in the stem is correctly associated with positivist philosophy.

Option A:
Positivist approaches typically favour structured designs, standardised instruments and statistical analyses to ensure objectivity and replicability. They emphasise control of variables and minimisation of bias to make law-like generalisations possible. These characteristics align exactly with the description in the question.

Option B:
Interpretivist philosophy, in contrast, focuses on understanding subjective meanings and social constructions of reality, often using qualitative methods. It is less concerned with universal laws and more with context-specific interpretations, so interpretivist is not the correct completion.

Option C:
Constructivist philosophy emphasises that knowledge is co-constructed by researchers and participants within specific contexts and that multiple realities may coexist. It privileges qualitative, in-depth methods rather than objective measurement and law-like generalisations, making constructivist an unsuitable answer for this stem.

Option D:
Critical philosophy examines structures of power, inequality and ideology, seeking emancipatory change rather than only neutral description or prediction. While it may use both qualitative and quantitative methods, its primary emphasis is on critique and transformation rather than on positivist-style general laws. Hence, critical philosophy does not fit the description in the stem.

Statements A, B, D and E describe key affordances and limitations of digital note-taking. Tools enable structured organisation, synchronisation across devices and quick retrieval through search, but they do not remove the need for selective recording and active processing by students. Statement C is false because many tools support images, links and even audio. Statement F is false since understanding depends on how notes are used for review and elaboration, not simply on the medium, so the correct set keeps A, B, D and E only.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits E, and thus fails to highlight the ongoing need for strategic note-making. A, B and D focus on features but not on learner responsibility, so the combination is partial.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes F, which suggests that using digital tools alone guarantees deep understanding. This ignores the importance of revision, reflection and practice, so adding F makes the set inaccurate.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it also includes F and leaves out A. Omitting A ignores organisational advantages, and accepting F exaggerates the effect of technology on learning outcomes. As a result, this option cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it acknowledges both the power and the limits of digital tools. It captures organisation, access and search while insisting that students still must actively decide what and how to record, which matches educational research on note-taking.

Mass communication occurs when a single source sends messages to large,heterogeneous audiences through media such as radio,TV or newspapers. A university programme broadcast over radio reaches many distant learners simultaneously. This is a classic one to many pattern,so it is mass communication.

Option A:
Interpersonal communication usually involves direct,face to face interaction between a small number of people,rather than a broadcast to the public.

Option B:
Intrapersonal communication is internal self talk within one person and does not involve a radio audience.

Option C:
Group communication describes interaction among members of a small group meeting together,not a mass broadcast across distances.

Option D:
Because the example in the stem uses radio to reach many dispersed learners at once,mass communication is the most accurate label.

Statements A, B, D and E are correct binary facts. A describes the positional value system in base 2. B is true because an odd number has last bit 1 and an even number has last bit 0. D correctly states the conversion method from binary to decimal. E is true for multiples of 4, whose binary form ends with two zeros. C is false; adding 1 flips only a block of trailing ones and the bit after that, not necessarily all bits. Therefore, A, B, D and E only are correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete since it omits E, thereby missing a useful rule for recognising multiples of 4 from binary patterns, which is sometimes tested in reasoning questions.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it includes C, wrongly claiming that adding 1 always flips all bits, which contradicts simple examples like 0010 becoming 0011.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since it leaves out A and includes only B, D and E, losing the fundamental statement about powers of 2 that underlies the entire binary system.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it gathers positional value, parity detection, conversion method and the multiple-of-4 criterion while excluding C, which misstates the effect of incrementing a binary number.

Nyāya differentiates between svārthānumāna, inference for oneself, and parārthānumāna, inference stated for the benefit of others. Parārthānumāna is typically presented in the full five membered form, making each step explicit to the listener. Its purpose is communicative and instructional: to lead another person from accepted premises to a conclusion through transparent reasoning.

Option A:
Option A describes svārthānumāna, the inner inferential process that need not be linguistically articulated.

Option B:
Option B rightly identifies parārthānumāna as outwardly expressed inference aimed at persuading or teaching someone else.

Option C:
Option C confuses the issue with scriptural evidence; dependence on scripture concerns śabda rather than the distinction between self addressed and other addressed inference.

Option D:
Option D associates parārthānumāna with a special class of objects, whereas the term is defined by its audience and function, not by subject matter.

NEP 2020 envisages higher education institutions as socially engaged bodies that work with local communities, address societal challenges and contribute to economic and cultural development.

Option A:
This option is incorrect because the policy explicitly asks HEIs to look beyond classrooms and research labs to serve society.

Option B:
This option is correct; it reflects NEP’s call for community engagement, local problem-solving and support for economic and cultural life.

Option C:
This option is wrong because operating like isolated islands would make HEIs less relevant and responsive.

Option D:
This option is incorrect as serving only as exam centres grossly underuses the teaching, research and outreach capacities of HEIs.

A is true because absolute value is never negative, so |x| ≥ 0 for all real x. B is true: |x| 0) means x lies within distance a of 0, i.e., −a < x a means x is outside that interval, i.e., x a. D is false because |x| > −2 is true for every real x (since |x| ≥ 0), so it does not force x to be positive. Therefore A, B and C only are correct.

A is given as the mother of B. B and C are siblings because B is the brother of C, so A is also the mother of C. C is the father of D, which means D is A’s grandchild through C. Hence, combining these links, A’s relationship to D is that of a grandmother.

Option A:
Option A correctly traces the family relations step by step: A is parent to C, and C is parent to D, making A one generation above D’s parent. This is precisely the definition of a grandparent, and since A is female, the correct term is grandmother.

Option B:
Option B, aunt, would be appropriate if A were a sibling of D’s parent, but the problem clearly states A is the mother of B and C, not their sister. Therefore, she stands one generation above, not at the same generation as D’s parent.

Option C:
Option C, sister, would require A and D to share the same parents or at least be in the same generation. The information places A two generations above D, so this description is incompatible.

Option D:
Option D, mother, would mean A directly gave birth to D, but the statement shows that C is the father of D, and A is C’s mother, so the relationship has an extra generational step.

Statements A, C and E are correct in describing NAAC accreditation. A is true because NAAC uses a multi-criteria framework covering curriculum, teaching–learning, research and governance. C is true as NAAC outcomes provide diagnostic information for institutional improvement plans. E is true since student and stakeholder feedback is a recognised input in the assessment process. B is false because NAAC accreditation is valid only for a specified period and requires reaccreditation. D is false because both colleges and universities are eligible for NAAC assessment. F is false because internal quality assurance like IQAC remains necessary even after accreditation.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it adds B, implying permanent validity of accreditation, which contradicts NAAC norms that require periodic reassessment.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it selects A, C and E, the three statements that accurately reflect NAAC’s evaluation scope, improvement orientation and use of feedback, while excluding B, D and F which misrepresent validity, coverage and internal quality roles.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it links correct statements C and E with F, which wrongly suggests that NAAC makes internal mechanisms unnecessary; this creates a mixed and therefore invalid combination.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it includes D and F, both of which are false, and omits C, giving a distorted view of NAAC’s institutional coverage and relationship with internal quality systems.

Statements A, B and D are correct, whereas C is incorrect. A is true because gestures that outline steps or shapes can visually reinforce the structure of a concept. B is true since restless movements that lack purpose may draw attention away from the content. D is true as what counts as polite, emphatic or rude gesture varies across cultures, so teachers must be sensitive to norms. C is false because appropriate, purposeful gestures usually support rather than hinder understanding.

Option A:
Option A includes A and B only and omits D, missing the important point that cultural context affects how gestures are interpreted. Although it recognises the instructional and distracting roles of gestures, its omission makes the option incomplete. Therefore A and B only cannot be accepted.

Option B:
Option B lists B and D only and leaves out A, failing to acknowledge that illustrative gestures can help students grasp conceptual structure. While B and D are correct, ignoring A makes the portrayal of instructional gestures limited. Hence B and D only is not the correct answer.

Option C:
Option C correctly groups A, B and D, capturing beneficial, potentially distracting and culturally conditioned aspects of gesturing while excluding C. It rejects the blanket claim that gestures should be avoided, which contradicts effective communication practice. Because it includes all and only the true statements, A, B and D only is the right answer.

Option D:
Option D treats all four statements as correct, including C, which wrongly asserts that gestures inherently confuse learners. Adding this false statement to the combination makes it logically inconsistent. Consequently A, B, C and D cannot be chosen.