UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Pramiti is the knowledge-event or cognition that arises when a pramana successfully operates on a prameya for a pramata. It is characterised as true, non-contradicted and useful for practical purposes. Nyaya analyses errors by contrasting them with genuine pramiti. Thus the product of successful knowing mentioned in the stem is pramiti.

Option A:
Option A, prameya, is the external object that is known, not the cognitive state that knows it. It cannot therefore be the resultant cognition.

Option B:
Option B, pramana, is the route or instrument, such as perception or inference, which produces the cognition but is not identical with it.

Option C:
Option C, pramata, is the knowing subject who undergoes the cognitive state, not the state itself.

Option D:
Option D is correct because pramiti is precisely the awareness “this is such-and-such” that counts as valid knowledge. It completes the fourfold structure of knower, means, object and knowledge.

When three fair coins are tossed, there are 2³ = 8 equally likely outcomes. The easiest way to find the probability of at least one head is to subtract the probability of getting no heads (i.e., all tails) from 1. The probability of all tails is 1 outcome (TTT) out of 8, which is 1/8. Therefore, the probability of at least one head is 1 − 1/8 = 7/8.

Option A:
Option A, 1/8, gives the probability of the complementary event (no head) rather than at least one head. It represents the chance of all tails.

Option B:
Option B, 3/8, might come from counting only single-head outcomes and ignoring cases with two or three heads, so it underestimates the event.

Option C:
Option C, 5/8, still misses some favourable outcomes and does not match the simple complement calculation.

Option D:
Option D correctly uses the complement rule and recognizes that all outcomes except the single all-tail result satisfy “at least one head,” leading to 7/8.

Vishesha is posited to account for the numerical distinctness of entities that are otherwise qualitatively identical, such as atoms of the same element or individual selves. It is an ultimate, non-shareable feature that prevents their collapse into a single entity. Without vishesha, the world would lack multiplicity at the fundamental level. Therefore the differentiating factor described in the stem is vishesha.

Option A:
Option A, samanya, is the universal that unites many individuals into one class and so plays the opposite role of highlighting commonality rather than difference.

Option B:
Option B is correct because vishesha literally means “particularity” and is used precisely to secure the individuality of basic entities. It ensures that there are many distinct selves and atoms instead of just one.

Option C:
Option C, samavaya, is the relation of inherence between entities like substance and attribute, not the differentiator of individuals.

Option D:
Option D, abhava, denotes types of non-existence and cannot serve as a positive principle of individuation.

These are triangular numbers formed by adding consecutive natural numbers: 1, 1+2 = 3, 1+2+3 = 6, 1+2+3+4 = 10 and 1+2+3+4+5 = 15. The next triangular number is 1+2+3+4+5+6 = 21. Therefore, 21 is the correct next term.

Option A:
Option A is 16, which does not arise from summing the first 6 natural numbers. It is only one more than 15 and ignores the triangular pattern. Hence, it is not correct.

Option B:
Option B is 18, which is between 15 and 21 but not equal to the next triangular value. Including 18 would make the pattern unclear. Therefore, this option is unsuitable.

Option C:
Option C equals 21, which is the sum of the first 6 positive integers and matches the known triangular number T₆. The series 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21 stays consistent with this definition. Thus, 21 is the valid continuation.

Option D:
Option D is 24, which is not a triangular number at this position. While 24 has other mathematical roles, it does not fit the specific summation pattern here. So, it cannot be chosen.

The references section of a research report contains detailed bibliographic information for all sources that have been cited in the text. Its purpose is to enable readers to locate the original works and to acknowledge intellectual debts accurately. The items are usually arranged in a standardised format, such as APA or MLA style. Because the stem specifies works that have actually been cited in the text, it is referring to the references list.

Option A:
An appendix contains supplementary material such as questionnaires, lengthy tables or additional analyses that support the study but are not essential to the main narrative. It does not primarily list the sources cited in the text. Therefore, appendix is not the correct answer.

Option B:
A bibliography may include not only works cited in the report but also other relevant readings that were consulted but not directly referenced. In many styles, it is broader than the references list described in the stem. Since the question emphasises only those works actually cited, references is more accurate than bibliography.

Option C:
Footnotes appear at the bottom of pages to provide additional comments, clarifications or source notes related to specific points in the text. While they may occasionally include brief citations, they do not constitute the organised list of all cited works at the end of the report. Hence, footnotes cannot complete the stem correctly.

Option D:
The references section is an essential part of scholarly writing, demonstrating transparency about sources and enabling verification of evidence. Its focus on cited works aligns exactly with the description given in the stem, making references the appropriate completion.

Statements A, B and D provide a realistic view of VR and AR in education, while C dismisses their educational potential. VR and AR can create immersive and context-rich learning experiences, but their adoption is constrained by cost and complexity. Many educational simulations and visualisations already use these technologies. Thus, the correct combination includes A, B and D and excludes C.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it includes only A and B and ignores D. Recognising the challenges described in D is important for a balanced understanding of VR and AR implementation in real classrooms.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it groups B and C and treats both as correct. While B accurately describes AR, C falsely claims that the technologies have no educational relevance, contradicting current practice.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it combines A, C and D, thereby accepting C. Although A and D are true, C undermines the educational value of VR and AR, so the combination cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it gathers the three true statements and sets aside C, which is inconsistent with the growing use of VR and AR in educational contexts.

Statements A, B, C, D and E correctly describe the five members of the Nyaya parārthānumāna, whereas F is false. Pratijñā presents the thesis about the pakṣa, hetu gives the reason, udāharaṇa supplies a universal example, upanaya applies that universal relation to the pakṣa and nigamana concludes the inference. The ordered presentation is meant to clarify both the general vyāpti and its specific application, so it is neither arbitrary nor insignificant. Therefore F must be rejected.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes the full and accurate description of each step in the five-member syllogism and excludes F, which denies the significance of their order. It aligns with standard Nyaya accounts used in UGC NET Indian logic questions. Hence A, B, C, D and E only is the right choice.

Option B:
Option B is incomplete as it omits E, thereby failing to mention nigamana, the final restatement of the conclusion. Without E, the overall structure of the syllogism is left unfinished. Therefore A, B, C and D only cannot be accepted.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since it omits A and includes only B, C, D and E. Without A, the role of pratijñā as the thesis about the pakṣa is absent, leaving the syllogism without its starting claim. This omission makes B, C, D and E only an inadequate combination.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it omits B and presents only A, C, D and E. Without B, the explicit statement of hetu as the reason is missing, which is central to the syllogistic structure. Thus A, C, D and E only cannot represent all the correct statements.

Psychological barriers arise from internal emotional and mental states such as fear, anxiety, low self-esteem or prejudice. These factors can inhibit students from asking questions, answering or expressing doubts, thereby obstructing effective communication. The stem specifically mentions fear of failure and anxiety, which are classic psychological barriers.

Option A:
Psychological barriers often require sensitive handling by the teacher, including building trust, providing encouragement and creating a supportive climate. Since the obstacles described in the stem come from learners’ feelings rather than external conditions, psychological is the correct completion.

Option B:
Semantic barriers result from misunderstanding of words, symbols or language, such as ambiguous terms or different interpretations of jargon. They do not directly involve fear or anxiety.

Option C:
Physical barriers include noise, poor seating arrangements, faulty equipment or distance, which interfere with hearing or seeing messages, not emotional reactions.

Option D:
Organisational barriers arise from hierarchical structures, rigid rules or poor channels of communication within an institution; they do not primarily refer to individual emotional states.

Statements A, B and D are correct because remedial teaching focuses on identified difficulties, relies on prior diagnosis and uses strategies like extra practice, alternative explanations and aids. C is false since humiliating segregation contradicts inclusive and ethical teaching practices. E is false because post-remedial evaluation is needed to check whether difficulties have been resolved. Therefore, A, B and D only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A includes A and B but omits D, not acknowledging the typical remedial strategies used to address problems. Because D is also correct, A and B only is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B brings C into a set with A and B, but C promotes humiliating practices that conflict with good remedial teaching. Including C makes A, B and C only an invalid option.

Option C:
Option C groups B, C and D yet again includes C, which is false and unethical, so B, C and D only cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D correctly combines A, B and D and excludes the harmful and inaccurate statements C and E. It therefore reflects the real purpose and nature of remedial teaching.

NEP 2020 proposes that NTA offer standardised aptitude and subject tests that universities can use for admissions so that students do not have to sit for many different entrance exams with overlapping syllabi.

Option A:
Forcing students to take numerous separate institutional exams is exactly the burden NEP aims to reduce through a common test option.

Option B:
This option is correct because it summarises the goal of providing a single, high-quality test that institutions may adopt to simplify and rationalise admissions.

Option C:
The common test is not meant to replace board examinations, which serve certification purposes for school education.

Option D:
Private coaching centres are not authorised admission-testing agencies in NEP; the responsibility lies with NTA as a public body.

Statement E is the only wrong statement because random assignment actually strengthens internal validity by equalising groups on extraneous variables. History, maturation, testing and instrumentation are all recognised threats that can introduce alternative explanations for observed changes if not controlled. Thus, A, B, C and D accurately name and describe typical threats, while E reverses the protective role of random assignment.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it groups A with E as wrong, even though A correctly defines history as external events occurring during the study period. Misclassifying A undermines the standard taxonomy of threats.

Option B:
Option B is also wrong because it treats B along with E as incorrect, even though B adequately describes maturation as internal changes over time. Including B among wrong statements disrupts the understanding of developmental influences on participants.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it isolates E, the statement that conflicts with experimental logic, and implicitly affirms the accuracy of A, B, C and D. It recognises that random assignment is a remedy, not a threat.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it pairs C with E, even though C correctly identifies testing effects. By labelling C as wrong, this option denies a well-acknowledged validity threat.

Statements A, B and D are correct: risk is seen as hazard–exposure–vulnerability, the Sendai Framework stresses prevention and resilience, and integrating DRR into development planning reduces future losses. Statement C is incorrect because non-structural measures like education, land-use planning and early warning are crucial complements to structural measures. Therefore, the option that includes A, B and D and excludes C is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete as it omits D, which correctly notes the importance of integrating DRR into development planning. Without D, the answer does not fully capture contemporary DRR practice.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since it includes C along with A and B, treating structural measures as sufficient and dismissing non-structural measures. This contradicts modern DRR frameworks.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because, while A and D are true, it omits B which highlights the Sendai Framework, a key part of the syllabus. The set of correct statements is therefore not complete.

Option D:
Option D is correct as it groups all three true statements and excludes the false one. It presents a holistic understanding of disaster risk reduction, combining conceptual, institutional and policy aspects.

Statements A, B and C are in fact correct as they describe how environmental accounting and green GDP attempt to incorporate environmental factors into economic assessment. Traditional GDP does ignore many environmental costs, and green GDP seeks to correct for these. Statement D is incorrect because environmental accounting provides important information for policy and planning. Since option C includes B, C and D and leaves out A while accepting D, it cannot be the correct answer. The correct combination must include A, B and C only.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it lists A, B and C and excludes D. It highlights the conceptual and practical significance of environmental accounting and green GDP in making development assessments more environmentally informed. Thus, it matches the intent of the question.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it omits C, which explicitly refers to green GDP adjustments, an important part of the concept. Leaving out such a central statement makes the combination incomplete.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect as it includes D, which wrongly asserts that environmental accounting is irrelevant for decision making. This contradicts the rationale behind developing such accounting systems.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it pairs A and C with D and omits B. It again accepts D, the incorrect statement, and fails to acknowledge the limitations of traditional GDP captured in B.

In the systems approach to teaching, feedback refers to information about the outputs—such as learner performance—that is fed back into the system to guide improvement. Teachers use test scores, observations and student comments as feedback to modify objectives, materials or strategies. This loop helps maintain or enhance the effectiveness of instruction. Therefore, the information about learner performance used to modify future teaching is called feedback.

Option A:
Input in a teaching system includes elements like student characteristics, resources and objectives that enter before instruction begins. While important, input does not describe information generated after instruction. Hence, it is not the term for performance information used to adjust future teaching.

Option B:
Throughput (or process) refers to the actual teaching–learning activities that transform inputs into outputs. It encompasses classroom interaction and instructional strategies. The stem, however, focuses on information used after observing outputs, which is different from throughput.

Option C:
Output denotes the results of the system, such as test scores, skills acquired or changed attitudes. Although feedback is based on outputs, the term “output” alone does not capture the idea of using this information to modify the system. Thus, it incompletely represents the concept described.

Option D:
Feedback is the flow of information from the output back to the system to indicate how well objectives are being met. In teaching, this includes exam results and other evidence of learning, which guide the teacher in revising plans and methods. Because the stem emphasizes using learner performance information to change future instruction, “feedback” is the correct term.

Statements A, B, C, E and F summarise sound practices for participating in educational video conferences, while D is unnecessarily restrictive. Muting, making connectivity stable, protecting meeting links, using headsets and checking video setup all support clear and secure communication. Chat features are often encouraged for questions, especially in large webinars where voice interruptions can be disruptive. Therefore D is not correct, and the set of true statements is A, B, C, E and F.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it omits F, which highlights the importance of camera framing and lighting. While A, B, C and E are true, ignoring visual presentation overlooks a key aspect of professional online presence. Hence this combination does not include all correct statements.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it excludes C, thereby failing to acknowledge risks of posting meeting links publicly. Without C, the combination does not address security threats such as unwanted intrusions into educational sessions. As a result, it is incomplete.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it includes A, B, C, E and F, all of which promote effective and secure participation. It explicitly excludes D, which wrongly discourages the constructive use of chat for questions. This makes Option C the only set that aligns with recommended etiquette for educational video conferencing.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it leaves out A, which recommends muting microphones when not speaking. Although B, C, E and F are true, omitting A neglects a basic practice for maintaining audio clarity in group calls. Therefore this option cannot be the correct answer.