UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

The GBF recognises that conserving and restoring biodiversity at scale requires both new funding and reformed economic incentives. It therefore calls for mobilising at least US$200 billion annually from public and private sources for biodiversity-related activities. Simultaneously, it urges countries to identify and reform subsidies harmful to biodiversity by at least US$500 billion per year, freeing resources for positive incentives. (Convention on Biological Diversity)

Option A:
This option correctly combines the two headline numbers on finance mobilisation and harmful subsidy reduction that appear in GBF targets.

Option B:
This option is incorrect because the framework emphasises greater support to developing countries, not withdrawal of funding.

Option C:
Increasing harmful subsidies would contradict the GBF’s explicit goal of reducing such incentives.

Option D:
The framework covers all ecosystems, including wetlands, grasslands and oceans; it is not limited to forests.

Feedback in communication is the receiver's response that goes back to the sender,indicating how the message was understood. When students ask questions after a lecture,they reveal which parts are clear and which are confusing. This information helps the teacher evaluate the effectiveness of teaching. Therefore,these responses function as feedback.

Option A:
Noise is any interference that distorts the message and reduces clarity,such as external sound or technical problems. Students' questions are not interference but purposeful responses. Hence this option is not appropriate here.

Option B:
Feedback allows the teacher to modify explanations,provide more examples or change pace based on student needs. Since the stem focuses on responses after a lecture,feedback is the correct concept.

Option C:
Redundancy involves repetition of information for clarity,not the receiver's reactions.

Option D:
Context refers to physical and social setting but does not itself indicate how the message was received.

Academic corruption refers to unethical and illegal practices in education, including bribery for admissions, manipulation of marks and awarding degrees without meeting academic standards. These actions undermine the integrity of higher education systems. The stem lists precisely such irregularities, so “corruption” is the correct term to describe them, making Option B appropriate.

Option A:
Corruption in higher education erodes public trust, damages the reputation of institutions and disadvantages honest students and staff. It is a serious governance challenge highlighted in discussions of the Higher Education System, aligning with the context of the question.

Option B:
Excellence refers to high quality and ethical behaviour, which is the opposite of what is being described. Hence, Option A is clearly incorrect.

Option C:
Innovation involves creative improvements or new practices, not the unethical shortcuts listed in the stem, so Option C is not suitable.

Option D:
Service suggests positive contribution to students and society, whereas the stem describes harmful practices, making Option D inappropriate.

The task is to identify the wrong statement about distance education regulation and quality. Statement A is correct because distance programmes must adhere to norms of designated regulators. Statement C is true as quality assurance covers learner support services, quality of materials and fair evaluation processes. Statement D is also correct since guidelines are designed to maintain minimum acceptable standards. Statement B is wrong because universities generally need approval or recognition to launch distance programmes. Therefore, B alone is the wrong statement.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it groups A and B as wrong, which would imply that compliance with regulatory norms is incorrect. In fact, A properly describes a legal requirement for distance education programmes.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect because it combines B and C as wrong. While B is wrong, C accurately identifies key dimensions of quality in distance education. Misclassifying C undermines the understanding of quality assurance.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it isolates B as the only statement that contradicts regulatory practice. It affirms the need for approvals and recognises that other statements describe genuine quality and regulatory features.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it treats all four statements as wrong. That would reject regulatory norms, quality assurance and minimum standards, which is clearly inconsistent with actual policy.

Statements A, B, C and E are correct because they describe the multi-dimensional nature of food security, the influence of climate change, the role of sustainable practices and the contribution of diversification to resilience. D is false since food loss and waste directly affect availability and access, and F is false because agricultural policies must consider environmental sustainability to avoid long-term degradation. Therefore, the correct combination is A, B, C and E only.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete, because it omits E and thus underplays the importance of diversification and resilience strategies for farming households. It focuses only on definitions and broad drivers.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect as it includes D, claiming post-harvest losses are irrelevant. This contradicts evidence that reducing losses and waste is a major lever for improving food security without expanding production.

Option C:
Option C is correct since it collects all four true statements while excluding D and F, which ignore key aspects of food systems and sustainability. It provides a comprehensive view of food security in a changing environment.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it accepts F and omits A, thereby denying the need for environmentally sensitive agricultural policies and neglecting the standard four-pillar definition of food security.

Asiddha hetu is a defective reason that has not been successfully shown to exist in the paksha. Because the foundational fact is missing or doubtful, no valid inference can proceed from it. Nyaya further distinguishes subtypes depending on why the reason is unestablished. The core problem is that the middle term fails at the very starting point.

Option A:
Option A, badhita, indicates a reason whose vyapti is contradicted by a stronger pramana, not one that is simply absent or unproved in the subject. The hetu might be present but epistemically defeated.

Option B:
Option B, satpratipaksha, involves a reason that is counterbalanced by an equally strong opposing reason, which is different from lacking initial establishment.

Option C:
Option C, savyabhicara, deals with irregularity across instances, where the reason is present but not constantly linked with the sadhya, rather than being missing in the paksha itself.

Option D:
Option D is correct because asiddha literally means "unaccomplished" and precisely marks the failure of the hetu to be verified where it is claimed to occur. This prevents the inferential chain from getting off the ground.

Photochemical smog arises from photochemical reactions between nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds under strong sunlight. It produces secondary pollutants such as ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate,leading to eye irritation and respiratory problems. The stem clearly refers to this sunlight driven reaction in urban environments. Hence photochemical smog is the correct term.

Option A:
Classical smog,also called London smog,is associated with high levels of sulphur dioxide,smoke and fog in cool,humid conditions. It is different in composition and meteorological setting from the sunlight dependent smog described in the question.

Option B:
Industrial smog is a broader term for pollution arising from industrial emissions,especially in older coal burning cities. While it may contain particulates and sulphur compounds,it is not defined by photochemical reactions involving nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons.

Option C:
Photochemical smog typically occurs in sunny, warm climates with heavy vehicle traffic. It is characterised by brownish haze and high ozone levels near the ground. These features correspond to the conditions outlined in the stem,so this option is accurate.

Option D:
Dust haze results primarily from suspended dust particles in the air,which reduce visibility. It is not a secondary pollutant arising from complex photochemical reactions. Therefore it does not match the description in the question.

A research question articulates, in interrogative form, what the study seeks to find out about a phenomenon or relationship. It narrows the broad problem into a specific focus that can realistically be addressed. By indicating what information is needed, it guides decisions about variables, participants and instruments. Therefore, a clearly worded interrogative statement that directs data collection is known as a research question.

Option A:
The research question helps to avoid vague or overly broad investigations by specifying exactly what the researcher wants to know. It serves as a bridge between the general problem and more formal hypotheses or objectives. This focusing and guiding function matches the description given in the stem.

Option B:
A null hypothesis is a statistical statement asserting that no significant difference or relationship exists in the population; it is not usually phrased as an interrogative question. It is also tied more to hypothesis testing than to the initial framing of inquiry. Hence, null hypothesis is not the correct completion.

Option C:
A research design is the blueprint that specifies how data will be collected and analysed, based on the previously defined questions and objectives. It is a plan, not an interrogative statement. Therefore, research design does not fit the role described in the question.

Option D:
A sampling frame is the list of units from which the sample is drawn and does not itself define what is being asked or investigated. It is a technical tool for selection rather than a statement of inquiry, so sampling frame is not appropriate here.

Ecosystem services is the standard term used to describe the diverse benefits humans derive from nature,including provisioning,regulating,cultural and supporting services. The stem lists specific examples like climate regulation and water purification,which fall into these categories. Therefore services is the correct word to complete the phrase ecosystem services. Option D is correct.

Option A:
Stocks refer to quantities of natural capital/resources; they do not directly mean the benefits and functions listed in the stem.

Option B:
Goods usually mean tangible products (timber,fish) and do not fully cover regulating functions like climate regulation and pollination.

Option C:
Flows describe movements of energy/materials; “ecosystem flows” is not the standard umbrella term for human benefits.

Option D:
Services is the accepted term for ecosystem-provided benefits like regulation, purification and pollination,matching the stem.

The series follows the formula aₙ = n³+2n² for n starting from 1. For n = 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 we calculate 1+2 = 3, 8+8 = 16, 27+18 = 45, 64+32 = 96 and 125+50 = 175. For n = 6 the expression gives 216+72 = 288. Hence 288 is the term that correctly extends this cubic-plus-square pattern.

Option A:
Option A, 278, is 10 less than the required value and does not equal n³+2n² for n = 6. It breaks the exact numeric relationship that has generated all previous terms. Therefore 278 is not the correct continuation.

Option B:
Option B, 282, is closer but still not equal to 216+72. It would imply a small but unjustified alteration of the formula at the last step. Thus 282 does not fit the pattern.

Option C:
Option C, 296, exceeds the computed value and again does not come from n³+2n² when n = 6. Choosing 296 would destroy the perfectly consistent algebraic structure of the sequence. Hence it is not valid.

Option D:
Option D, 288, is exactly 216+72 and comes directly from the rule aₙ = n³+2n². It preserves both the cubic and quadratic contributions in the same way as before, making 288 the correct next term.

In this series, the first letter K remains fixed while the second and third letters move forward by two positions each time. The second letters L, N, P and R are at positions 12, 14, 16 and 18, and the third letters M, O, Q and S are at positions 13, 15, 17 and 19. Continuing this plus two progression, the next second and third letters should be T (20) and U (21), giving KTU.

Option A:
Option A, KUV, uses U and V for the second and third letters, which would be four positions ahead of R and S. This doubles the required step size and breaks the consistent plus two movement. As such, KUV does not conform to the series rule.

Option B:
Option B, KST, sets S and T in the second and third positions, which are only two and three positions ahead of R and S collectively. This creates unequal shifts and does not follow the clear parallel movement of both letters by two. Therefore KST is not an accurate continuation.

Option C:
Option C is correct because T and U are exactly two positions beyond R and S respectively, maintaining the same parallel increase. The first letter K is unchanged, reflecting the fixed initial position, and the second and third letters move in lockstep. This makes KTU the logical extension of the pattern.

Option D:
Option D, KTV, advances the second letter correctly to T but moves the third letter to V, which is three positions after S. This lack of parallelism in the movement contradicts the even shifting behaviour found in the series. Consequently, KTV cannot be chosen as the next term.

Statements A, C, D and E are all characteristics of effective teacher behaviour. A is correct because clarity and organisation help learners follow the lesson. C is correct as relatable examples link content to prior experience and improve understanding. D is correct since monitoring learning and giving feedback allow teachers to adjust instruction. E is also correct because respect and empathy foster a positive classroom climate. B is wrong because discouraging questions and monopolising talk time contradict the idea of interactive and learner-centred teaching; therefore the correct set is A, C, D and E only.

Option A:
Option A includes A, C and D, all of which are true, but it omits E, which correctly highlights the importance of respect and empathy. Since E is also a valid characteristic of effective teaching, this combination is incomplete and cannot be accepted as correct.

Option B:
Option B brings together A, C, D and E, which collectively depict clear, organised, supportive and responsive teacher behaviour. It correctly excludes B, which promotes a suppressive style that undermines student engagement. Because this option captures all and only the true statements, it is the correct answer.

Option C:
Option C lists A and C only and ignores D and E, both of which are essential aspects of effective teaching. By leaving out feedback and respectful relationships, this option underestimates the full range of effective teacher behaviours and is therefore not correct.

Option D:
Option D combines C, D and E and misses A, even though clear and organised explanations are fundamental to good teaching. Without acknowledging this basic instructional requirement, the combination cannot be considered complete or correct.

Option E groups A, D and E but fails to include C, which stresses the use of relevant examples. Since connecting content to learner experience is a well-established indicator of effective teaching, omitting C makes this option incomplete and incorrect.

In this question statements A, B and C appropriately describe the concepts of population, sample and probability sampling. Statement A is true because the population refers to the total set of units about which the researcher wants to generalise. Statement B is correct in defining a sample as a subset of that population, and statement C accurately reflects that in probability sampling every element has a known non-zero chance of selection. Statements D and E are wrong: D incorrectly labels convenience sampling as a rigorous probability technique, and E wrongly suggests that a large sample size alone guarantees representativeness regardless of sampling method, so the wrong statements are exactly D and E.

Option A:
Option A brings together statements D and E, both of which misrepresent sampling concepts. It recognises that convenience sampling is a non-probability method and that large sample size without appropriate sampling design cannot ensure representativeness. Because it neither omits any wrong statements nor includes any correct ones, this combination is the correct answer.

Option B:
Option B treats statement D as the only wrong statement and thus ignores the error contained in statement E. While it is true that calling convenience sampling a rigorous probability method is incorrect, it is equally incorrect to claim that sample size alone guarantees representativeness. Since this option fails to capture all the wrong statements, it cannot be accepted.

Option C:
Option C identifies only statement E as wrong and overlooks statement D. It is right to challenge E because representativeness depends on the sampling technique and frame, not just on the size. However, by failing to mark D as wrong, this option does not fully answer the question.

Option D:
Option D erroneously includes statement C among the wrong statements. Statement C correctly defines probability sampling as giving every element a known non-zero chance of selection. By classifying a correct statement as incorrect, this combination becomes logically inconsistent and therefore cannot be the correct answer.

The Paris Agreement specifies the long term goal of holding the increase in global average temperature to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 degrees. The stem explicitly uses the phrase “well below” and then mentions pursuing efforts for 1.5 degrees,which confirms that the blank should be 2. Therefore Option C is the correct choice.

Option A:
A target of 1 degree is not the stated “well below” threshold in the Paris Agreement and does not appear as the main temperature limit in its text.

Option B:
1.5 degrees is included in the Paris Agreement as an aspirational effort goal (“pursuing efforts to limit to 1.5”),but it is not the number that follows “well below” in the main clause.

Option C:
The 2 degree figure is the key reference point in the Paris Agreement: parties agreed to keep warming well below 2°C and pursue efforts toward 1.5°C. This matches the stem exactly.

Option D:
4 degrees is far above agreed limits and is associated with dangerous warming scenarios,not the Paris temperature goal.

Redundancy in communication refers to deliberate repetition or inclusion of extra cues to ensure the message is received accurately. Summarising and repeating key points help learners recall important ideas and reduce the chance of missing information. Thus the teacher’s repetition adds redundancy to the message.

Option A:
Noise is unwanted interference that harms understanding,whereas redundancy is added precisely to counter loss of meaning.

Option B:
Redundant elements support memory by reinforcing the main concepts,which aligns with the stem,making option B correct.

Option C:
Secrecy hides information instead of repeating it,so it does not describe this situation.

Option D:
Distortion alters the message and creates misunderstanding,which is opposite to the intention of summarising clearly.