UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

State public universities are created by state legislatures and placed under the jurisdiction of state higher education departments. Their recurring expenditure, including salaries and maintenance, largely comes from state government budgets. This arrangement reflects India’s federal division of responsibilities in education. Therefore, state governments are correctly identified as the main funding source.

Option A:
State governments provide budgetary support, approve posts and monitor performance of these universities. The category “state university” itself signals this relationship. For this reason, “state” is the appropriate completion of the stem.

Option B:
Central government primarily funds central universities and institutions of national importance rather than most state universities. While it may provide some scheme-based grants, it is not the main maintainer in this case, so this option is wrong.

Option C:
Municipal bodies look after local civic services and sometimes school education but do not typically finance state universities established by Acts of state legislatures. Therefore, this option does not fit the stem.

Option D:
District administrations coordinate various programmes at the district level but are not the statutory maintainers of state universities. As such, this option is not correct.

Statements A, B and D are correct, while C and E are incorrect. A is true because oral explanations permit students to ask questions immediately. B is true as written formats create documented records that can be revisited. D is true since rules and notices are commonly communicated in written form. C is false because complex policies may require careful written articulation, and E is false because written communication is an integral part of educational communication. Consequently, A, B and D only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A lists A and B, both true, but omits D, which also accurately describes the use of written communication for official purposes. Without D, A and B only does not cover all correct statements in the set.

Option B:
Option B includes A, B and D, giving a full and accurate picture of how oral and written communication complement each other in teaching. It rightly rejects C and E, which present extreme positions. Therefore, A, B and D only is the correct answer.

Option C:
Option C groups B and D, which are correct, but excludes A, failing to mention the important advantage of immediate clarification through oral communication. As such, B and D only provides an incomplete response.

Option D:
Option D combines A, D and E, but E incorrectly claims that written communication has no role in education. Including E leads to a mix of true and false statements, so A, D and E only cannot be accepted.

One way communication is characterised by messages flowing from sender to receiver without meaningful feedback. In the stem,the teacher talks continuously while students remain silent listeners,so only the teacher is actively sending messages. This pattern fits the definition of one way communication.

Option A:
Two way communication would require students to ask questions or respond,which the stem explicitly rules out.

Option B:
One way communication often leads to limited checking of understanding,making this category appropriate for a long uninterrupted lecture.

Option C:
Interactive communication emphasises mutual exchange,which is absent in this scenario.

Option D:
Mass communication refers to mediated messages reaching large public audiences,rather than a classroom lecture.

19A₁₆ = 1×16² + 9×16¹ + 10×16⁰ = 256 + 144 + 10 = 410.

Option A:
Option A correctly converts each hex digit using powers of 16 and sums to 410.

Option B:
Option B (394) is smaller and implies miscalculation of place values.

Option C:
Option C (402) is also incorrect due to arithmetic error.

Option D:
Option D (418) overshoots the correct total.

A prime number has exactly two distinct positive divisors, 1 and itself. The numbers 11, 13 and 17 each have no divisors other than 1 and themselves and are therefore prime. The number 15, however, is divisible by 1, 3, 5 and 15, so it has more than two divisors and is composite. Hence 15 is the odd one out in the list.

Option A:
Option A, 11, is a prime number because its only positive divisors are 1 and 11. It shares this property with 13 and 17 and therefore does not stand out in this group.

Option B:
Option B, 13, is also prime and fits the same classification as 11 and 17. It does not have additional factors that would make it different.

Option C:
Option C, 15, clearly deviates from the prime pattern, since it can be expressed as 3 × 5. Its composite nature makes it unique among the options and justifies treating it as the different number.

Option D:
Option D, 17, remains prime since no integer between 2 and 16 divides it without remainder. It aligns with 11 and 13 rather than differing from them.

A is correct because logical following means the conclusion must necessarily hold if the statements are true. D is also correct since the test requires ignoring outside knowledge, and E is true as some items use several statements jointly. B is wrong because factual truth in real life does not guarantee that the conclusion is logically implied by the given statements. C is wrong because conclusions that go beyond the given information are usually treated as not following, even if they appear plausible. Therefore, B and C only are the wrong statements.

Option A:
Option A recognises only B as wrong and ignores C, which also mischaracterises strong conclusions by equating them with extra information. Hence it does not capture all incorrect statements.

Option B:
Option B picks only C as wrong and overlooks B, which conflates real-world truth with logical implication. This again fails to identify the full set of wrong statements.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it groups together B and C, the two statements that mislead about how logical following is judged, while leaving A, D and E as the accurate descriptions of statement–conclusion reasoning.

Option D:
Option D incorrectly adds D to the list of wrong statements, even though D is true about ignoring outside knowledge, and so misclassifies a correct rule.

A research question is an interrogative statement that expresses what the researcher wants to know, framed in a way that can be investigated systematically. It provides direction for selecting methods, participants and analysis strategies. Good research questions are specific, feasible and significant. Because the stem describes a clear, focused and answerable interrogative statement that guides investigation, it is referring to a research question.

Option A:
A hypothesis is a declarative, testable proposition about relationships between variables that often arises from refining a research question. While related, a hypothesis is not itself interrogative. Since the stem emphasises an interrogative form, hypothesis is not the best answer.

Option B:
Objectives are declarative statements of what the researcher intends to achieve, typically beginning with verbs like “to examine” or “to compare.” They are not phrased as questions but as aims. Therefore, objective does not fit the interrogative nature highlighted in the stem.

Option C:
A proposition is a general statement that asserts a possible relationship or regularity, often used in theory development. It may be broader or less directly testable than a research question. The stem, however, focuses on a clear and answerable question guiding a specific investigation, pointing more precisely to a research question.

Option D:
Research questions translate broad topics into manageable inquiries that can be addressed with empirical methods. They play a crucial role in aligning literature review, method selection and analysis. This guiding function matches the stem’s description, confirming research question as the correct completion.

Demographic dividend refers to the economic opportunity that arises when a country’s working-age population is large relative to the dependent population (children and elderly). If accompanied by investments in health, education and jobs, this age structure can boost productivity and growth.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because a rising share of elderly people usually increases dependency and fiscal pressure rather than creating a dividend.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since a sudden rise in births initially increases child dependency and delays any potential dividend.

Option C:
Option C is correct as it links the concept to economic growth potential created by a favourable age structure, provided appropriate policies are in place.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because child welfare alone is not enough; without employment and human capital for the growing youth cohort, the dividend may never materialise.

Upadhi is introduced to explain why an apparently universal relation between hetu and sadhya fails in some cases. It identifies a hidden condition on which the association actually depends, thereby revealing that the original vyapti was overgeneralised. By bringing the upadhi to light, logicians refine the universal so that it becomes truly exceptionless. In this way, upadhi plays a key role in clarifying the boundaries of valid inference.

Option A:
Option A is correct because upadhi literally means "subsidiary condition" and marks the factor that must be added to the hetu for a genuine, unrestricted vyapti to hold. Recognising it prevents fallacious reasoning based on misleadingly broad generalisations.

Option B:
Option B, trairupya, refers to the three marks of a valid hetu and does not itself name a limiting condition on vyapti.

Option C:
Option C, paksa dharma, simply designates a property possessed by the paksha and may or may not involve hidden conditions; it is a descriptive term rather than a diagnostic one.

Option D:
Option D, samsaya, denotes doubt as a mental state that prompts inquiry but is not the technical device for delimiting universals.

A pilot study is a trial run conducted with a small sample resembling the target population to check whether research procedures, tools and logistics work as intended. It helps identify ambiguities in questions, timing issues, recruitment difficulties and other practical problems. Findings from the pilot are used to refine instruments and plans before launching the full-scale study. Thus, the small-scale preliminary study described in the stem is correctly called a pilot study.

Option A:
Pilot studies often reveal unexpected challenges, such as low response rates or confusing instructions, allowing researchers to make adjustments that improve data quality in the main study. This testing of feasibility and procedures matches the stem, making this option correct.

Option B:
Experimental studies are full-scale investigations that manipulate variables to test hypotheses rather than small preliminary tests of feasibility. They come after methods have been refined.

Option C:
Correlational studies examine relationships among variables without manipulating them and are not defined by being preliminary trials, so they do not fit the stem.

Option D:
Evaluative studies assess the effectiveness or value of programmes or interventions and are usually full studies in their own right, not preparatory tests before another major investigation.

Each group here consists of four letters that are all equally spaced from each other in the alphabet. ADGJ has evenly increasing positions, and BEHK, CFIL and DGJM repeat the same internal spacing with their own starting letters. From one group to the next, every letter moves forward by one place, so the columns form simple increasing sequences. Moving each letter of DGJM forward by one produces EHKN, which is the only option that keeps the equal spacing and column wise step, making it the correct continuation.

Option A:
Option A is correct because EHKN follows directly after DGJM when each column is advanced by one letter. The distances between E, H, K and N match those inside the earlier groups exactly. It therefore extends both the vertical progressions and the internal even steps of the series.

Option B:
Option B, EHKM, uses the correct first three letters but changes the last letter so that the gap from K to M differs from the established spacing. This small alteration breaks the exact pattern that has been followed consistently. Because the internal distances are disturbed, EHKM cannot be the next term.

Option C:
Option C, FIKN, begins with F instead of E and alters multiple letters, which no longer come from a simple one step shift of DGJM. Its internal arrangement does not fit the regular ladder structure of the series. Hence FIKN is not acceptable as the correct answer.

Option D:
Option D, EGKM, mixes letters that do not align properly with the existing column sequences and ignore the equal spacing between positions. The changes in the inner parts of the group do not match the mechanical rule used earlier. Therefore EGKM does not continue the series correctly.

The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986 in the aftermath of the Bhopal gas tragedy. It provides a comprehensive legal framework empowering the central government to set standards and issue notifications for environmental protection. Because the stem refers to this umbrella legislation,1986 is the correct year.

Option A:
The year 1972 is associated with the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment,which influenced Indian environmental policy but did not itself create the Environment (Protection) Act. Therefore 1972 is not the right completion for the Act’s year.

Option B:
1986 marks the formal adoption of the Environment (Protection) Act,under which various rules such as those for hazardous waste and coastal regulation have been issued. This makes it the accurate answer to the question.

Option C:
The year 1991 is known in India for major economic liberalisation measures. It does not correspond to the passage of this specific environmental act,so it is not appropriate here.

Option D:
The year 2002 has significance for some conservation initiatives but is unrelated to the original enactment of the Environment (Protection) Act. Thus it is not the correct option.

Statements A, B, D and E are correct and show how forests support livelihoods, governance and ecological functions. Forests supply products and services, community management can share benefits, secure tenure often supports stewardship and forests influence local climate and water cycles. C is wrong because monoculture plantations typically reduce biodiversity, and F is wrong because traditional knowledge is important for sustainable use and conservation. Thus, A, B, D and E only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect as it leaves out E, failing to acknowledge the climatic and hydrological roles of forests. Without E, the answer focuses mainly on products and governance, not on ecosystem regulation.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since it includes F and omits A. Accepting F dismisses the value of traditional knowledge, and dropping A ignores the broad range of forest products and services. This combination is therefore conceptually weak.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it includes all the true statements and excludes C and F, which misrepresent plantations and knowledge. It reflects the multifaceted importance of forests to both people and environment in this unit.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it contains C, treating biodiversity-increasing monocultures as correct, which is generally not the case. Including C undermines understanding of the ecological costs of converting natural forests.

Statements C and D are wrong, whereas A and B correctly describe carbon taxes and emissions trading. Market-based instruments are important but usually need to be complemented by regulations, technology policies and behavioural measures, so they are not always sufficient on their own. Fossil fuel subsidies in fact encourage continued use of high-carbon fuels and hinder transitions to low-carbon systems. Therefore, the wrong statements are C and D together.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it picks C only and ignores D, even though fossil fuel subsidies also contradict the idea of low-carbon transition. Selecting only C fails to identify all wrong statements.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it recognises that both C and D misrepresent mitigation policies. It acknowledges the complementary role of regulatory instruments and notes that fossil fuel subsidies are inconsistent with climate goals. This combination therefore matches the requirement to select the wrong statement or statements.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes B, C and D as wrong. Statement B is actually correct in explaining how cap-and-trade systems work, so grouping it with the wrong statements makes this option invalid.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect since it singles out D only as wrong and treats C as correct. Accepting C would imply that market instruments alone make regulations redundant, which is not supported by climate policy practice.

The National Education Policy 2020 is the comprehensive document that superseded the earlier National Policy on Education 1986 and its 1992 modifications. It lays out a holistic vision for school and higher education, including structural reforms, multidisciplinary learning and quality improvement. The stem clearly refers to the policy that replaced NPE 1986 and now guides higher education, which is the National Education Policy 2020. Thus, Option A is correct.

Option A:
National Education Policy 2020 addresses all levels of education and is explicitly described as replacing the earlier NPE. It sets out goals and strategies for access, equity and quality, directly matching the description in the question. Hence, this option accurately completes the statement.

Option B:
New Examination Policy would focus only on assessment practices and is not the name of the broader policy that governs the entire education system. Therefore, Option B does not fit the stem.

Option C:
New Employment Policy and National Employment Plan would relate primarily to labour market strategies and job creation, not to comprehensive restructuring of education. Options C and D are therefore not appropriate answers here.

Option D:
National employment plans focus on economic and labour policy, whereas the stem is clearly about an education policy document. Since National Employment Plan has no formal status as the successor to NPE 1986 in the education context, this option cannot be correct.