UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Sustainable consumption aims to reduce the environmental impact of goods and services over their life cycle. Choosing durable products and repairing them extends their useful life and lowers the demand for new production. This reduces resource extraction, energy use and waste generation associated with manufacturing and disposal. Therefore, the practice of using and repairing long-lasting items is a clear example of sustainable consumption.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it embodies the principles of reduce and reuse. Households that maintain and repair products generate less waste, save money and lower their ecological footprint, aligning daily choices with sustainability goals.

Option B:
Option B is incorrect since leaving lights and fans on wastes electricity and increases emissions from power generation. It contradicts the idea of conserving energy at home.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because throwing away edible food increases solid waste and squanders the resources used to produce and transport that food. Sustainable consumption would encourage better planning, storage or sharing to avoid food waste.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect as buying heavily packaged products for appearance leads to unnecessary material use and waste. Sustainable consumers typically prefer minimal or recyclable packaging.

Statement C is the only wrong statement because even with digital payment systems, robust cybersecurity measures remain essential. UPI does support instant mobile-based transfers, digital wallets store card details or balances and PoS terminals accept card and mobile payments, so A, B and D are correct. Cyberattacks, fraud and phishing continue to be threats, so it is misleading to say that cybersecurity is no longer needed. Hence the option that selects only C as wrong is correct.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it treats both A and C as wrong statements. Statement A is accurate and describes a core feature of UPI as used in India. Grouping a true statement with a false one makes this combination invalid.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it isolates C as the single wrong statement and implicitly accepts A, B and D as correct. It reflects the reality that digital payment systems still require encryption, authentication and user awareness for safe use.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it considers both C and D as wrong. While C is false, D correctly recognises that PoS terminals support card and mobile-based payments. Including a true statement in the wrong set makes the option unacceptable.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it takes B and C as wrong statements. B is true since digital wallets commonly store card details or balances for easy transactions. Combining this true statement with the false claim in C produces a logically inconsistent option.

Accreditation is the process through which an external quality assurance agency evaluates an institution or programme against predefined criteria and standards. When the institution meets these standards, it receives an accreditation status or grade. The stem describes exactly this type of external evaluation and formal certification, which is correctly called accreditation. Thus, Option B is the appropriate answer.

Option A:
Affiliation is a relationship between a university and its colleges, where the university governs examinations and awards degrees. While important administratively, it is not the same as a quality certification process, so Option A is not correct.

Option B:
“Accreditation” is the recognised term for external evaluation and formal recognition of quality standards, so it matches the stem exactly.

Option C:
Adjudication usually refers to legal decision-making by a court or tribunal rather than to educational quality assurance processes. Therefore, Option C does not match the context of the question.

Option D:
A birth certificate confirms an individual’s existence and identity, not the quality of an educational institution. It is issued by civil administration authorities rather than by academic quality bodies. Consequently, “certification of birth” is conceptually misplaced and does not describe the process in the stem.

Statement A matches the definition of percentage as a ratio per hundred. C is correct because a 25% profit implies selling price equals cost price plus 25% of cost, giving 125% of cost. D is true since equal ratios constitute a proportion. E is also correct; if a:b = 2:3, reversing gives b:a = 3:2. B is false, because a 20% increase followed by a 20% decrease results in a net 4% decrease. Thus A, C, D and E only form the correct set.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete; while A and C are true, omitting D and E ignores important proportional and inverse ratio relationships frequently examined in NET aptitude questions.

Option B:
Option B is wrong as it includes B, which misstates the effect of successive percentage changes, and so mixes a false statement with correct ones.

Option C:
Option C is correct because it collects the accurate definitions and interpretations of percentage, profit, proportion and inverse ratio, while excluding B, which leads to a typical exam trap.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it includes B, allowing a false claim about successive percentage operations into the option, even though C, D and E are correct.

Statements A, C and D are correct, while B and E are incorrect. A is true as cultural background shapes meanings attached to words and behaviours. C is true because inclusive examples help learners relate content to their own contexts. D is true since recognising language diversity and adjusting communication is central to intercultural competence. B is false because assuming identical norms ignores diversity, and E is false because higher education also hosts culturally diverse populations. Therefore, A, C and D only is the correct combination.

Option A:
Option A lists A and C only, both accurate, but omits D, which rightly emphasises language diversity as part of intercultural competence. Without D, the answer does not capture all correct statements, so A and C only is incomplete.

Option B:
Option B brings together A, C and D, capturing interpretive differences, inclusive examples and language sensitivity, and excludes B and E, which minimise or ignore diversity. Since it contains all and only the true statements, A, C and D only is the correct option.

Option C:
Option C includes C and D but leaves out A, failing to state the core idea that messages are interpreted differently across cultures. As this is fundamental to intercultural communication, C and D only cannot be the best answer.

Option D:
Option D adds E to A, C and D, but E incorrectly claims that intercultural concerns are irrelevant in higher education. Including E creates a mixture of true and false statements, so A, C, D and E only is invalid.

The NCQG negotiated at COP29 seeks to move beyond the earlier USD 100 billion target by setting a higher, time-bound ambition. It aims to scale climate finance to roughly USD 300 billion a year for developing countries by 2035, reflecting rising needs for mitigation and adaptation. Developed countries are expected to lead, consistent with the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities. The goal is also meant to be revisited over time as science and needs evolve. (Drishti IAS)

Option A:
This option correctly conveys both the approximate magnitude (tripling) and the timeframe (by around 2035) of the NCQG, as well as its focus on developing countries and leadership role for developed nations. It aligns with reported summaries of COP29 outcomes on finance and thus is the best current-affairs-based answer.

Option B:
Completely ending public climate finance was not an option under serious discussion. Public finance remains crucial for adaptation and for leveraging private investment, especially in vulnerable countries. This statement contradicts the equity-oriented spirit of the NCQG negotiations.

Option C:
Restricting climate finance only to mitigation projects in developed countries runs against the idea that finance should flow to developing countries and cover both mitigation and adaptation. It therefore misstates the direction and scope of the agreed goal.

Option D:
Freezing finance permanently at USD 100 billion would ignore the growth in needs documented by various assessments and contradict calls for higher support. COP29’s objective was to go beyond, not lock in, the earlier 100-billion pledge.

Statements A, C and D correctly describe data storage units in the binary system used in many ICT contexts. Kilobyte is commonly approximated as 1024 bytes when referring to memory, and a gigabyte is conventionally treated as 1024 megabytes in the same binary sense. A bit is indeed the smallest unit of data in a computer. Statement B is wrong because one megabyte is smaller, not larger, than one gigabyte, so the correct set of true statements is A, C and D only.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because it includes only statements A and C while omitting D. Statement D is also true, as one gigabyte is usually taken as 1024 megabytes when using binary-based measurement. Excluding a true statement leads to an incomplete identification of correct statements.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it groups exactly the true statements A, C and D. Together they explain the hierarchical relationship between bit, byte, kilobyte, megabyte and gigabyte in ICT. No false statement is included in this combination, which matches the requirement to select all correct statements.

Option C:
Option C is incorrect because it includes B, C and D as correct. While C and D are true, statement B is false since an MB is smaller than a GB. Incorporating a false statement into the combination means this option cannot be accepted.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because it assumes that all four statements are correct. Statement B incorrectly reverses the size relationship between megabyte and gigabyte. Since a single false statement is enough to disqualify the combination, this option is not correct.

Mode 2 knowledge refers to research conducted in the context of application, involving multiple disciplines and various social actors. It emphasises problem solving and practical relevance beyond traditional academic boundaries. The stem lists these characteristics, so the correct number is “2.”

Option A:
Mode 0 is not a recognised category in discussions of knowledge production and has no established meaning. Therefore, this option cannot complete the term.

Option B:
Mode 1 denotes traditional disciplinary, curiosity-driven research carried out mainly within universities. It does not highlight the transdisciplinary and socially distributed nature mentioned in the question, making this option unsuitable.

Option C:
Mode 2 captures the shift towards context-driven, application-oriented and collaborative knowledge production outlined in the stem, confirming that this option is correct.

Option D:
Mode 4 is not part of the classic Mode 1–Mode 2 typology and does not refer to the described pattern of research. Hence, this option is incorrect.

NEP 2020 envisages IITI as an institute to build capacity in translation and interpretation across Indian and foreign languages and to support materials and expertise for multilingual education.

Option A:
Option A is incorrect because engineering skills are addressed by technical institutions, not by IITI.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it directly states the translation and interpretation functions linked to language policy that NEP assigns to IITI.

Option C:
Option C is wrong since sports coaching is unrelated to IITI’s language and translation mandate.

Option D:
Option D is incorrect because a film acting school does not correspond to the academic and linguistic role described for IITI in the policy.

Resource limits refer to the finite nature of land,water,energy and other ecological assets that support human life. The stem talks about a limit to the number of people Earth can support based on these resources. This is essentially an illustration of resource limits and planetary constraints. Therefore “limits” fits the blank correctly.

Option A:
Abundance suggests resources are more than sufficient,which contradicts the idea that Earth can support only a limited number of people.

Option B:
Limits emphasise that indefinite growth is not possible on a finite planet and directly matches the meaning in the stem.

Option C:
Entropy is a thermodynamics concept and is not the straightforward term used here for population–resource constraints.

Option D:
Privatisation is about ownership/management,not biophysical constraints on how many people can be supported.

The campaign aims to make durable cloth bags easily accessible and affordable so that people do not rely on disposable plastic bags. By installing vending machines at public places, it reduces convenience barriers and normalises carrying reusable bags. This supports state and national efforts to curb single-use plastics and fosters a culture of reuse and waste prevention.

Option A:
This option correctly reflects the core objective of the initiative, which is to change everyday consumer behaviour away from plastic carry bags.

Option B:
This option is incorrect; the programme is explicitly against unnecessary plastic purchases.

Option C:
The campaign does not oppose waste segregation; reducing single-use plastics complements better waste management.

Option D:
While tourists may also use the bags, the initiative is primarily about habitual local shopping behaviour, not souvenirs.

Yogaja pratyaksha is a special kind of perception said to arise from yogic concentration and discipline, allowing direct awareness of subtle realities that ordinary senses cannot reach. It is considered alaukika because it does not depend on usual sense-object contact. Traditional texts describe yogaja perception as immediate and self-evident to the yogi. Therefore the supernormal awareness mentioned in the stem is called yogaja pratyaksha.

Option A:
Option A, laukika, refers to everyday empirical perception through external senses and cannot account for the extraordinary, meditative origin of yogic awareness.

Option B:
Option B, samanyalaksana, is focused on perceiving universals through their instances, not on supernormal access to hidden or distant objects.

Option C:
Option C is correct because yogaja directly points to yogic origin, distinguishing these cognitions from both ordinary perception and reasoning. It preserves the claimed immediacy of such insights while acknowledging their exceptional status.

Option D:
Option D, anumana, is mediate inferential knowledge and lacks the immediacy and non-discursive character attributed to yogic perception.

In digital systems, all information is represented using bits that can take values 0 or 1. Eight such bits are grouped to form a byte, which becomes the standard unit for measuring memory and storage. This convention allows consistent encoding of characters and small data items across devices, so describing a byte as a group of 8 bits is correct.

Option A:
This option correctly states that eight bits together form one byte, matching standard computer architecture. It highlights that the byte is a fundamental unit for measuring memory and storage capacity.

Option B:
This option reverses the relationship by claiming that a bit is made of 8 bytes, which is conceptually wrong. A bit is the smallest unit, whereas a byte is formed from bits. It also incorrectly suggests that bits directly store characters, ignoring that encodings typically use bytes.

Option C:
This option wrongly claims that a bit and a byte always represent the same quantity of data. A byte clearly represents more information than a single bit because it has eight binary positions.

Option D:
This option associates bytes only with analog communication, which is incorrect because bytes are central to digital computing and networking. Analog systems do not use bytes in the same structured way as digital systems.

NEP 2020 identifies the four-year integrated B.Ed. as the standard preparation route for school teachers. It combines content studies with professional courses and practicum. The programme is to be offered in multidisciplinary universities and colleges. This model replaces fragmented and shorter programmes over time.

Option A:
A one-year programme is considered too short for comprehensive teacher preparation in the NEP framework.

Option B:
Two-year B.Ed. programmes will exist only as a transitional arrangement and not as the long-term main route.

Option C:
Three-year models are not emphasised in the policy; the key emphasis is on a robust four-year integrated course.

Option D:
Four years provide enough time to integrate disciplinary knowledge, pedagogy and practicum, which is why NEP recommends this duration.

Pūrvavat anumāna reasons from a presently observed cause to a future effect, based on previous experience of that sequence. Seeing dark, rising clouds and inferring that rain will soon occur is the stock illustration: clouds are known to precede rainfall. The temporal direction is from what comes earlier (cause) to what comes later (effect).

Option A:
Option A, inferring fire from smoke already on a hill, is typically treated as śeṣavat or anvayavyatireki, since smoke is regarded as the effect of an already present fire, not as a cause of future fire.

Option B:
Option B, inferring past rain from a swollen river, moves from a present effect to a past cause and is a standard example of śeṣavat anumāna.

Option C:
Option C correctly shows a present cause (dark clouds) used to infer a future effect (rain), which is the defining pattern of pūrvavat.

Option D:
Option D, inferring air from the movement of leaves, is an example of sāmānyatodṛṣṭa anumāna, where a generally observed association (moving leaves with air) is used to infer an unseen entity, not specifically a cause–future-effect sequence.