UGCNET Questions

Planning in teaching involves deciding in advance what to teach, how to teach and how to evaluate learning. It requires formulating instructional objectives, organising content logically and choosing suitable methods and resources. This work is done before actual classroom interaction begins. Hence, the activity of deciding objectives, sequence and methods clearly represents the planning function.

Option A:
This option describes conducting the final examination, which belongs to the evaluation and summative assessment functions. It is performed after most teaching is completed and is not a planning action.

Option B:
This option is correct because it directly describes preparatory activities carried out by the teacher. Such planning helps ensure coherence in the learning experience and sensible use of time. It sets a clear roadmap for both teacher and students, contributing to effective teaching.

Option C:
This option concerns attendance record keeping, an administrative and classroom management task. While important, it does not reflect the core planning of learning activities and objectives.

Option D:
This option refers to invigilation duties during examinations, which are supervisory responsibilities ensuring fairness and discipline, not planning instructional processes.

In a learner-centred classroom, students actively participate, collaborate and construct their own understanding. Group problem-solving and sharing outcomes with peers, as in Option B, clearly demonstrates such an approach.

Option A:
Option A shows a teacher-dominated class where students are passive listeners. This is a typical teacher-centred situation, not learner-centred.

Option B:
Option B gives learners responsibility to explore, discuss and present ideas. The teacher becomes a facilitator, which is a key feature of learner-centred pedagogy.

Option C:
Option C restricts students to copying notes, which is a low-engagement activity offering little scope for understanding or application.

Option D:
Option D disallows questions, which suppresses curiosity, clarification and critical thinking, all of which are necessary in learner-centred teaching.

Communication competence involves more than just speaking a lot or remembering content. It integrates clarity, coherence and sensitivity to listeners. Students who can arrange their points logically, use understandable language and adapt explanations to their peers’ level are much more effective presenters.

Option A:
Option A emphasises verbatim memorisation of the textbook, which can lead to rigid delivery and does not guarantee understanding or connection with the audience.

Option B:
Option B is correct because clarity, logical organisation and audience adaptation are core components of competent communication in academic presentations.

Option C:
Option C, deliberately avoiding eye contact, often signals nervousness or disinterest and tends to reduce audience engagement and credibility.

Option D:
Option D, speaking without planning or structure, risks producing disorganised, confusing messages that do not support learning goals.

A literature review enables the researcher to become familiar with what has already been done on a topic. By critically analyzing previous findings, the researcher can see what is known, where inconsistencies exist and what remains unexplored. This helps in sharpening the research problem, formulating appropriate objectives and avoiding unnecessary duplication.

Option A:
Option A suggests avoiding citations, which undermines scholarly honesty and disconnects the study from existing knowledge.

Option B:
Option B is correct as it highlights the three central functions: understanding existing knowledge, identifying gaps and refining the problem. These steps enhance relevance and originality of the research.

Option C:
Option C treats review as a mere way to increase length, ignoring its analytical and conceptual role in building a strong foundation for the study.

Option D:
Option D implies that literature review substitutes for methodology, which is incorrect. Methodology must still be explicitly designed and justified after reviewing literature.

The given series consists of perfect squares of natural numbers. Specifically, 1² = 1, 2² = 4, 3² = 9, 4² = 16 and 5² = 25. The next term should therefore be 6², which is 36. This continues the clear pattern of successive squares.

Option A:
Option A, 30, does not correspond to any perfect square and breaks the pattern of square numbers. It would require a different rule that is not evident in the series.

Option B:
Option B, 32, is also not a perfect square and falls between 25 and 36 without a clear basis from squaring integers.

Option C:
Option C, 35, is again not a perfect square and therefore cannot follow the pattern of 1², 2², 3², 4² and 5².

Option D:
Option D, 36, is 6² and naturally follows 5² = 25 in the sequence of square numbers. It maintains the structure of the series and is therefore the correct next term.

The word LEVEL has five letters in total, with L appearing twice and E appearing twice, while V appears once. The formula for permutations of n objects with repetitions is n factorial divided by the product of factorials of repeated counts. Thus, the number of distinct permutations is 5! ÷ (2! × 2!). Calculating this gives 120 ÷ 4 = 30. Hence, there are 30 different arrangements of the letters in LEVEL.

Option A:
Option A, 20, underestimates the actual number and cannot be obtained by the correct factorial expression 5! ÷ (2! × 2!). It likely comes from an incorrect guess or misapplied formula.

Option B:
Option B accurately uses the repetition-adjusted permutation formula, recognizing two repeated L’s and two repeated E’s. By evaluating 120 ÷ 4, it yields 30, which counts all unique arrangements without overcounting identical ones.

Option C:
Option C, 40, exceeds the true count and would require a different numerator or denominator in the formula. It suggests that the effect of repeated letters has not been properly accounted for.

Option D:
Option D, 60, is exactly half of 120 and may arise from dividing by only one 2! instead of both 2!. This partially correct adjustment still leads to overcounting because both L and E are repeated.

Exploratory research is undertaken when the researcher has limited prior information about a problem situation. Its purpose is to gain familiarity, clarify concepts and identify promising directions for more structured studies. Rather than testing precise hypotheses, it helps generate them through flexible methods like informal interviews, case studies or pilot surveys. Therefore, exploration and idea generation lie at the heart of this design.

Option A:
Option A refers to hypothesis testing with large samples, which corresponds more to conclusive or explanatory research than exploratory work. Exploratory studies are usually small scale and flexible.

Option B:
Option B correctly describes exploratory research as focused on relatively unknown problem areas and aimed at producing insights, questions and tentative hypotheses. It emphasizes that the goal is conceptual and preparatory, not definitive testing or precise measurement.

Option C:
Option C talks about measuring the exact magnitude of a well defined phenomenon, which is more characteristic of descriptive or conclusive research rather than exploratory work.

Option D:
Option D stresses causal relationships and high control, which are features of experimental or explanatory designs rather than exploratory ones.

Self plagiarism occurs when an author reuses significant portions of their own previously published work without appropriate acknowledgment or permission. Republishing the same data and findings as if they were new misleads editors, reviewers and readers about the originality of the contribution and can distort the scientific record.

Option A:
This option represents good practice rather than misconduct. When researchers properly cite their earlier work, they transparently show how the new study extends previous efforts, which is acceptable.

Option B:
This option accurately describes self plagiarism because it involves reusing one’s own published findings without disclosure. The absence of cross-referencing creates the false impression that the work is entirely new.

Option C:
Using an established method from the literature with proper citation is normal scholarly practice. Because the original author is credited, there is no plagiarism, self or otherwise.

Option D:
Publishing extended versions of conference papers is acceptable when the earlier presentation is clearly acknowledged and the journal is informed. Transparent cross-referencing means this is not self plagiarism.

Teaching in universities is expected to go beyond immediate exam preparation. A central function is to help learners develop the ability to think independently, learn on their own and adapt to new situations. Intellectual autonomy enables graduates to handle complex and changing demands in professional and social life; promoting such autonomy and lifelong learning skills is therefore a key function of higher education teaching.

Option A:
This option describes a very narrow and authoritarian view of teaching. Transmission without questioning stops students from engaging critically with knowledge. It contradicts the spirit of academic inquiry and does not represent a key function of modern teaching.

Option B:
This option correctly emphasizes long term intellectual growth rather than short term performance. It reflects the idea that students should become self directed learners who can continue learning after formal education ends.

Option C:
This option stresses obedience to rules as the main function, which reduces teaching to control. While some regulation is necessary to maintain order, it is only a means to create a conducive climate, not the primary function of university teaching.

Option D:
This option focuses only on examinations, which are one form of evaluation. If teaching is reduced to exam coaching, it neglects broader cognitive, affective and social development, so it cannot be considered the central function of higher education.

Higher education is situated in a rapidly changing knowledge and technology environment. Continuous professional development activities such as workshops, seminars and reflective practice help teachers stay current in their disciplines. They also provide opportunities to learn new pedagogical strategies and assessment techniques. This enables teachers to respond more effectively to diverse and evolving learner needs.

Option A:
This option suggests freezing teaching practices, which can make instruction outdated and less relevant. Without development, teachers may struggle to address new curricular demands or learner profiles.

Option B:
This option is correct because it emphasises both content and pedagogical updating. Professional development is a key mechanism for maintaining and enhancing teaching quality over time.

Option C:
This option implies that professional development removes the need for feedback, which is inaccurate. Feedback remains essential for identifying areas where further growth is needed.

Option D:
This option views evaluation as a one-time event, ignoring the ongoing nature of accountability. Even well trained teachers benefit from continuous review and improvement.

Solving 2x + 3 ≤ 11, we subtract 3 from both sides to get 2x ≤ 8. Dividing both sides by 2 yields x ≤ 4. On the real number line, this corresponds to all numbers less than or equal to 4. In interval notation, that set is written as (−∞, 4], with a square bracket at 4 indicating that 4 is included.

Option A:
Option A, (−∞, 4), excludes 4 itself and would represent x < 4, which is a strict inequality, not the given ≤ relation. Option B: Option B correctly captures x ≤ 4 by including all values up to and including 4, thus satisfying the inequality exactly. Option C: Option C, (−∞, 7], includes many values greater than 4, violating the upper bound imposed by 2x ≤ 8. Option D: Option D, [4, ∞), represents x ≥ 4, the opposite direction of the inequality, and only includes 4 and greater values.

Experimental research aims to determine whether changes in one variable cause changes in another. This requires deliberate manipulation of the independent variable and control over other factors that might influence the outcome. By holding extraneous variables constant or randomizing them, the researcher can attribute observed differences in the dependent variable more confidently to the treatment.

Option A:
Option A describes qualitative interviewing, which is useful for exploration but does not by itself establish causality through controlled manipulation.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it combines the two essential ingredients of true experimentation: manipulation and control. Without these, causal claims remain weak or speculative.

Option C:
Option C refers to biased selection of participants, which can threaten internal validity and does not help in establishing causal relationships.

Option D:
Option D mentions very small samples and lack of control group, both of which weaken the ability to infer causality and generalize findings.

A necessary condition must be present whenever the outcome occurs. If having a valid admit card is necessary for entry, then anyone who is inside the hall must have such a card. In conditional form this becomes “If a person enters the hall, then the person has a valid admit card.” The statement does not claim that possessing a card alone is enough for entry, only that entry cannot happen without it.

Option A:
Option A treats possessing the card as sufficient for entry, which goes beyond necessity and may ignore other requirements like identity proof.

Option B:
Option B captures the idea that entry implies the presence of the necessary condition, aligning with the logical form “Outcome → Condition.”

Option C:
Option C reverses the direction in a way that ties receiving the card to entering, which is not what the original statement asserts.

Option D:
Option D explicitly mislabels the condition as sufficient but not necessary, contradicting the claim that it is necessary.

Research is understood as an organized process guided by clearly defined objectives and questions. It relies on systematic procedures for collecting, analyzing and interpreting data to address a problem or gap in knowledge. Objectivity and careful control of bias are emphasized to make the findings credible.

Option A:
Option A is correct because it includes the key features: planning, objectivity, systematic method and knowledge orientation. It covers both discovery of new knowledge and validation of existing knowledge through evidence.

Option B:
Option B presents research as casual and opinion based, which contradicts the disciplined nature of scientific inquiry.

Option C:
Option C reduces research to a single guess, ignoring the need for sustained investigation, data collection and analysis.

Option D:
Option D focuses only on data collection and neglects interpretation and reasoning, without which raw data cannot contribute meaningfully to knowledge.

Interpersonal communication typically occurs between two individuals who are mutually aware of each other and can exchange feedback in real time. Academic counselling sessions involve direct eye contact, personalized dialogue and immediate responses tailored to the student’s needs.

Option A:
Option A is an example of public or group communication where one person addresses many listeners with limited individual feedback and little personal relationship.

Option B:
Option B is correct because it is a dyadic, face-to-face interaction in which teacher and student exchange messages personally and adjust to each other’s responses.

Option C:
Option C, a notice on the website, is a mediated one-to-many written message with no immediate feedback from individual students, so it is not interpersonal.

Option D:
Option D is a mass-media style broadcast to many colleges; feedback is indirect and delayed, so it is closer to mass communication than interpersonal communication.