UGC NET Questions (Paper – 1)

Data backup strategies are implemented to ensure that information can be restored if the primary storage device fails or files become corrupted by malware or errors. By keeping copies on separate media or in the cloud, organisations reduce the risk of permanent loss. This is a key aspect of ICT risk management and continuity planning. Therefore, backups mainly protect against hardware failure and corruption.

Option A:
Option A is correct because hardware breakdowns and file corruption are among the most common causes of data loss, and backup systems are specifically designed to mitigate these problems.

Option B:
Option B, increased redundancy, describes having duplicates but does not fully capture the underlying threat; redundancy is the means rather than the risk being addressed.

Option C:
Option C, user convenience, may be a secondary benefit but is not the primary reason for systematic backup procedures.

Option D:
Option D, faster processing, relates to performance improvements and is not a direct outcome of creating backup copies.

Statements A, B, C, E and F all describe elements of a comprehensive backup and recovery strategy, whereas D is unsafe. Regular backups, off-site copies and tested restoration procedures reduce the risk of catastrophic data loss. Clear responsibilities and encryption further enhance reliability and confidentiality. Relying on a single local copy contradicts redundancy principles, so the correct set includes every statement except D.

Option A:
Option A is incomplete because it omits F, thereby neglecting the role of encryption in protecting sensitive backup data. Without F, the confidentiality dimension of backup strategy is underrepresented.

Option B:
Option B is incomplete because it excludes A and includes only B, C, E and F. While those statements are true, not mentioning defined schedules fails to acknowledge the need for structured backup planning.

Option C:
Option C is incomplete because it leaves out C or other elements depending on the chosen subset; any combination that fails to include the testing of restoration misses a critical aspect of disaster preparedness.

Option D:
Option D is correct because it gathers all the true statements about scheduling, location, testing, accountability and encryption while rejecting D’s assertion that a single local copy is enough. This option aligns with widely recommended ICT risk management practices.

A computer worm is a type of malware that can copy itself and spread through network connections, often exploiting vulnerabilities. Unlike traditional viruses, it does not need to attach to an existing program or file to propagate. Worms can rapidly consume bandwidth, overload servers and cause widespread disruption. Hence, the definition given in this option aligns with standard ICT security terminology.

Option A:
This option actually describes a typical file-infecting virus, which embeds its code into host programs and often requires user execution to spread. While dangerous, this behaviour is different from the autonomous network propagation characteristic of worms. Therefore, it is not the best description of a worm.

Option B:
This option correctly points out that worms are self-replicating and move across networks independently of host files. They often scan for other vulnerable machines and copy themselves automatically. This makes them particularly challenging to contain in large ICT infrastructures.

Option C:
A harmless software update from a trusted vendor is intended to patch vulnerabilities and improve functionality, not to cause damage. Equating such updates with worms confuses legitimate maintenance with malicious activity.

Option D:
A physical cleaning device has nothing to do with malware, which is purely software-based. Using such equipment may help maintain hardware but does not relate to network-spreading malicious programs.